RPSC RAS Prelims Exam Question Paper 2023

General Information about RPSC RAS Prelims Question Paper 2023

Exam Board	Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC)
Exam Name	Rajasthan State and Subordinate Services Combined Competitive (Preliminary) Examination, 2023
Exam Date	01-10-2023
Answer Key issue date	01-10-2023
Final Answer key issue date	20-10-2023
Exam Mode	Offline
Question paper language	Hindi & English
Question paper type	Objective
Subject	General Knowledge and General Science
Total Question	150
Maximum Marks	200
Negative Marking	1/3
Time	3 Hours + 10 Minutes Extra

Note :- The answers to all the questions given in this question paper have been taken from the official answer key of RPSC.

Question 1. The East-West Corridor connect __________ to ___________.

• (A) Imphal to Ahmedabad
• (B) Dimapur to Vadodara
• (C) Silchar to Porbandar
• (D) Guwahati to Kandla Port

Question 2. Which is the incorrect pair ?

• (A) Satur – Central Aravalli
• (B) Katada – Southern Aravalli
• (C) Dur-Marayaji – Central Aravalli
• (D) Mahoharpura – Northern Aravalli

Question 3. Which of the following group of districts are correctly arranged in descending order as per the amount of monsoon rainfall they receive ?

• (A) Dholpur, Rajsamand, Jalore
• (B) Bhilwara, Baran, Sikar
• (C) Rajsamand, Jalore, Dholpur
• (D) Pali, Jaipur, Bharatpur

Question 4. Which three rivers of the following form ‘Triveni’ Sangam ?

• (A) Banas River, Mainal River, Bedach River
• (B) Gambhiri River, Mansi River, Dhundh River
• (C) Kothari River, Khori River, Bedach River
• (D) Som River, Aahu River, Bandi River

Question 5. As per the India State of Forest Report 2021, the forest cover in terms of vegetation cover is 16,654 square km, it is __________ percent of Rajasthan’s geographical area.

• (A) 6.74
• (B) 7.48
• (C) 8.47
• (D) 4.87

Question 6. Which are the largest Bauxite and Mica producing States in India ?

• Bauxite – Mica
• (A) Madhya Pradesh – Maharashtra
• (B) Chhattisgarh – Odisha
• (C) Odisha – Andhra Pradesh
• (D) Jharkhand – Rajasthan

Question 7. The first sugar industry based on beet-root was established at-

• (A) Sri Ganganagar
• (B) Bhopalsagar
• (C) Keshoraypatan
• (D) Udaipur

Question 8. The Mahi Bajaj Sagar Project is a joint venture of-

• (A) Rajasthan, Punjab and Gujarat
• (B) Gujarat and Rajasthan
• (C) Rajasthan, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh
• (D) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

Question 9. Choose the district of Rajasthan which had the lowest decadal population growth rate between 2001-2011.

• (A) Barmer
• (B) Sri Ganganagar
• (C) Pali
• (D) Bundi

Question 10. Kalakhuta, Leelwani, Nardiya, Timmamori are producing regions of which mineral in Rajasthan ?

• (A) Manganese
• (B) Tungsten
• (C) Copper
• (D) Iron ore

Question 11. Kalisindh Super Thermal Power Station is located at-

• (A) Baran
• (B) Jhalawar
• (C) Dungarpur
• (D) Banswara

Question 12. Which is not a correct match ?

• Wildlife – District
• (A) Shergarh – Bundi
• (B) Bassi – Chittorgarh
• (C) Ramsagar Van Vihar – Dholpur
• (D) Sitamata – Pratapgarh

Question 13. Mahi Kanchan and RCB 911 are hybrid variety of-

• (A) Maize and Barley respectively
• (B) Maize and Rice respectively
• (C) Maize and Bajra respectively
• (D) Bajra and Maize respectively

Question 14. Consider the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India :

(I) The final session of the Constituent Assembly was held on 24^th January, 1950.

(II) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was declared to be duly elected to the office of President of India in this final session.

• (A) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct.
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (C) Only (II) is correct.
• (D) Only (I) is correct.

Question 15. Which of the following schedule of the Constitution of India was added to the Constitution by the first Constitutional Amendment ?

• (A) Sixth
• (B) Tenth
• (C) Ninth
• (D) Seventh

Question 16. Identify the incorrect statement regarding Judicial Interpretation of Article 21 after Supreme Court’s verdict in Maneka Gandhi Case, 1978.

• (A) The burden lies on the petitioner to prove that the procedure established by law which deprives him of his life of personal liberty is arbitrary.
• (B) ‘Procedure established by law’ is by and large synonymous with the ‘Procedural due process’ ad prevalent in the U.S.A.
• (C) Articles 21, 19 and 14 are not mutually exclusive.
• (D) ‘The Right to Life’ includes ‘The Right to Live with Dignity’.

Question 17. Nathmal Ji Ki Haveli is located in

• (A) Barmer
• (B) Bikaner
• (C) Jodhpur
• (D) Jaisalmer

Question 18. Identify the incorrect statement regarding Council of States (Rajya Sabha).

• (A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan is the only Chairman of Rajya Sabha for two consecutive terms.
• (B) For the first constitutional amendment, ratification of the Rajya Sabha was not taken.
• (C) Currently eight member are elected to Rajya Sabha from the Union Territories.
• (D) There have been three occasions, when joint sitting of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha was held.

Question 19. Which one of the following statement is not correct regarding “No-Confidence Motion” ?

• (A) 27 No-Confidence Motions, 9 Confidence Motions have been moved till 15^th August, 2023.
• (B) Lal Bahadur Shastri faced the most No-Confidence Motions per office year.
• (C) The member who wants to move No-Confidence Motion give notice to the speaker of the Lok Sabha in writing.
• (D) No-Confidence Motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha.

Question 20. Match the following List-P (Directive Principles) with List-R (Articles) :

List-P	List-R
a. Equal justice and free legal aid	I. Article 48 A
b. Protection of the environment	II. Article 39 A
c. Right to Work	III. Article 41
d. Protection of Monuments	IV. Article 49

• Select correct option :
• (A) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
• (B) a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
• (C) a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
• (D) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV

Question 21. Which of the following sections of the Right to Information Act is not related to the functions and powers of the Central Information Commission ?

• (A) 25
• (B) 19
• (C) 18
• (D) 12

Question 22. Which one of the following Commission did recommend the establishment of an Inter-Government Council in place of Inter-State Council ?

• (A) Rajmannar Commission
• (B) Punchhi Commission
• (C) Administrative Reforms Commission, 1969
• (D) Sarkaria Commission

Question 23. Consider the following statements :

(I) The Lok Sabha Election of 1989 marked the end of, what Political Scientists have called, the ‘Congress System’.

(II) Indian National Congress emerged as the single largest party in the 1989 Lok Sabha Elections.

• (A) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct.
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (C) Only (II) is correct.
• (D) Only (I) is correct.

Question 24. Match the following List-P (CAG) with List-R (Articles) :

List-P	List-R
a. Appointment of CAG	I. Article 148
b. Duties and Powers of CAG	II. Article 151
c. Form of Accounts of the Union	III. Article 149
d. Audit Reports	IV. Article 150

• Select correct option.
• (A) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
• (B) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
• (C) a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
• (D) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I

Question 25. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the Chief Minister of Rajasthan ?

• (A) Mohanlal Sukhadia took oath as Chief Minister four times.
• (B) The Chief Minister at the time of Emergency of 1975 was Haridev Joshi.
• (C) Barkatullah Khan remained the Chief Minister for the shortest period.
• (D) C.S. Venkatachari was not the elected Chief Minister.

Question 26. What can be the minimum strength of Rajasthan’s Council of Ministers ?

• (A) 12
• (B) 10
• (C) 08
• (D) 05

Question 27. In the Presidential Election, 2022, the vote value of each member of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly was-

• (A) 149
• (B) 132
• (C) 129
• (D) 116

Question 28. According to Article 217 (1) of the Constitution, a Judge other than the Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court is appointed by the President after consultation with-

• (A) Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court, Attorney General of India and Governor of Rajasthan.
• (B) Governor of Rajasthan, Chief Justice of India and Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court.
• (C) Union Law and Justice Minister and Governor of Rajasthan.
• (D) Chief Justice of India and Governor of Rajasthan.

Question 29. Which of the following recommended the post of Rajpramukh to be abolished in Rajasthan and the arrangement of the Governor was made instead ?

• (A) State Legislative Assembly
• (B) Constituent Assembly
• (C) State Reorganization Commission
• (D) State Administrative Reforms Commission

Question 30. Which one of the following is not a part of Rajasthan Urban Drinking Water Sewerage and Infrastructure Corporation Limited ?

• (A) Rajasthan Urban Infrastructure Finance and Development Corporation Limited
• (B) Rajasthan Avas Vikas Infrastructure Limited
• (C) Rajasthan Housing Board
• (D) Rajasthan Urban Infrastructure Development Project

Question 31. Through which Amendment Act, the existing, ‘Village Level Workers’ has been substituted by the ‘Gram Vikas Adhikari’ ?

• (A) The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015
• (B) The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2017
• (C) The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2019
• (D) The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2021

Question 32. Consider the following statements regarding Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC) :

(I) The chairman and members of the commission are appointed by the Governor of Rajasthan.

(II) The chairman or any other member of the commission shall only be removed from his office by order of the President.

• (A) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct.
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (C) Only (II) is correct.
• (D) Only (I) is correct.

Question 33. Tehsildar is appointed by-

• (A) The Union Public Service Commission
• (B) The Staff Selection Commission
• (C) Rajasthan Public Service Commission
• (D) The Board of Revenue

Question 34. A Committee constituted in 2014 under the Chairmanship of Narpat Mal Lodha is related to which of the following subjects ?

• (A) Panchayati Raj
• (B) Human Rights
• (C) Governor
• (D) Lokayukta

Question 35. Consider the following statements regarding State Election Commission, Rajasthan :

(I) It was constituted in July, 1994 under Article 243 K of the Constitution of India.

(II) It is a single member commission headed by the State Election Commissioner.

• (A) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct.
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (C) Only (II) is correct.
• (D) Only (I) is correct.

Question 36. In April, 2023, a Bench of Rajasthan State Information Commission is approved by State Government to be established at which city ?

• (A) Ajmer
• (B) Kota
• (C) Jodhpur
• (D) Udaipur

Question 37. Which of the following scheme is associated with slogan – “Koi Bhukha Na Soye” ?

• (A) Balgopal Scheme
• (B) Indira Gandhi Rojgar Guarantee Scheme
• (C) Annpurna Food Packet Scheme
• (D) Indira Rasoi Yojana

Question 38. Consider the following statements regarding Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission :

(I) Commission has one chairperson and four members in accordance with the provisions of The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006.

(II) At present, Justice Gopal Krishna Vyas is its chairperson.

• (A) Neither (I) or (II) are correct.
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (C) Only (II) is correct.
• (D) Only (I) is correct.

Question 39. Which of the following expression shows the formula of Gross Fiscal Deficit ?

• (A) Gross Fiscal Deficit = Primary Deficit + Net borrowing from abroad
• (B) Gross Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Revenue Receipts
• (C) Gross Fiscal Deficit = Revenue Deficit + Capital Expenditure
• (D) Gross Fiscal Deficit = Net borrowing at home + Borrowing from RBI + Borrowing from abroad

Question 40. Which of the following is NOT a Public good ?

• (A) Government Administration
• (B) National Defence
• (C) Cars
• (D) Roads

Question 41. Consider the following statements regarding inflation :

Statement (I) : Head-line inflation refers to the rate of change in the Consumer Price Index Number, a measure of the average price of a standard basket of goods and services consumed by a typical family.

Statement (II) : Core inflation measures the change in average consumer prices after excluding from the Consumer Price Index certain items of volatile prices such as food and fuel.

• of these statements,
• (A) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct.
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (C) Only (II) is correct.
• (D) Only (I) is correct.

Question 42. Consider the following statements regarding Indira Gandhi Urban Employment Guarantee Scheme :

(I) It guarantees per year 125 days employment for families residing in Urban Areas.

(II) After registration, the eligible candidate has to be provided employment in 30 days.

• (A) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct.
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (C) Only (II) is correct.
• (D) Only (I) is correct.

Question 43. Which of the following is not a measure of selective credit control ?

• (A) Change in lending margins
• (B) Sale of government securities
• (C) Credit rationing
• (D) Moral suasion

Question 44. Which of the following statement, related to Pharmaceutical sector is not correct ?

• (A) India has 80 percent market share of global vaccine manufacturing.
• (B) India is the largest provider of generic medicines globally.
• (C) India is ranked 14^th worldwide in the production of pharma products by value.
• (D) India is ranked 3^rd worldwide in the production of pharma products by volume.

Question 45. The rank of India in Global Happiness Index 2023 is

• (A) 115
• (B) 118
• (C) 126
• (D) 136

Question 46. Which of the following statement related to automobile sector is not correct ?

• (A) It generated direct and indirect employment of 5.3 crore at the end of 2021.
• (B) It contributes 7.1 percent to India’s GDP.
• (C) In 2021, India was World’s fourth largest manufacturer of passenger cars.
• (D) In 2021, India was the largest manufacturer of two wheeler and three wheeler vehicles in the world.

Question 47. Which of the following is NOT a tool of fiscal policy ?

• (A) Public expenditure
• (B) Interest rate
• (C) Deficit financing
• (D) Taxation

Question 48. As per the advance estimates of the year 2022-23, what percent share is Rajasthan’s GSDP estimated to contribute in India’s nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) ?

• (A) 6.54 percent
• (B) 5.18 percent
• (C) 4.86 percent
• (D) 3.78 percent

Question 49. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true for Atal Bhujal Scheme in Rajasthan ?

(I) Atal Bhukal Scheme has been running by Government of Rajasthan with the Financial assistance of Govt. of India.

(II) The focus of this scheme is on better management of ground water as well as to prevent its reducing level.

• Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
• (A) Neither (I) nor (II)
• (B) Only (II)
• (C) Only (I)
• (D) Both (I) and (II)

Question 50. Which of the following fact is not correct about Mukhya Mantri Laghu Udhyog Protsahan Yojana (MLUPY) of Rajasthan ?

• (A) Under this scheme, 4 percent interest subsidy on loans upto 15 crore is being provided to small scale entrepreneurs.
• (B) Under this scheme, 5 percent interest subsidy on loans upto 10 crore is being provided to small scale entrepreneurs.
• (C) Under this scheme, 6 percent interest subsidy on loans upto 5 crore is being provided to small scale entrepreneures.
• (D) Under this scheme, 8 percent interest subsidy on loans upto 25 lakh is being provided to small scale entrepreneurs.

Question 51. In the year 2022-23, contribution of which sub-sector in Gross State Value Added (GSVA) at current prices of service sector of Rajasthan was maximum ?

• (A) Transport, Storage & Communication
• (B) Trade, Hotels and Restaurants
• (C) Real Estate, Ownership of dwellings & professional services
• (D) Financial Services

Question 52. Which sector is likely to show highest increase in the real Gross State Value Added (GSVA) at constant basic prices (2011-12) in the year 2022-23 over previous year ?

• (A) Service sector
• (B) Industry sector
• (C) Agriculture sector
• (D) None of these

Question 53. Which agency is funding upgradation of 801 km of 11 state highways in Rajasthan State Highways Development Program-II project ?

• (A) NABARD
• (B) National Highways Authority of India
• (C) World Bank
• (D) Asian Development Bank

Question 54. In Rajasthan, which agency is entrusted with the responsibility of implementation of PM-KUSUM Yojana (component A) i.e. installation of small solar power plants of 0.5 MW to 2 MW capacity ?

• (A) Bureau of Energy Efficiency
• (B) Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Limited
• (C) Rajasthan Rajya Vidyut Utpadan Nigam Limited
• (D) Rajasthan Vidyut Prasaran Nigam

Question 55. In Rajasthan, the Energy Conservation Day is celebrated on

• (A) 14^th December
• (B) 5^th June
• (C) 22^nd April
• (D) 21^st March

Question 56. Government of Rajasthan enacted the Rajasthan Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act in year

• (A) 2008
• (B) 2005
• (C) 2003
• (D) 2001

Question 57. In which of the following scheme, the main objective is to promote the use of appropriate methods, care and services during pregnancy, safe delivery and lactation period to improve the health and nutritional status of pregnant and lactating women and their infants (0-6 months) ?

• (A) Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana
• (B) Indira Gandhi Matrutva Poshan Yojana
• (C) Mission Vatsalya Yojana
• (D) Palanhar Yojana

Question 58. Which of the following options indicate one of the important objectives of (Indira Mahila) Shakti Udaan Scheme ?

• (A) Empowering women self-help groups.
• (B) Generating awareness about menstrual health and hygiene management.
• (C) Vocational training of women.
• (D) Improvement in education status of girls.

Question 59. Which among the following is a Narcotic analgesic drug ?

• (A) Morphine
• (B) Arsphenamine
• (C) Aspirin
• (D) Paracetamol

Question 60. Myopia and Hypermetropia can be respectively corrected by

• (A) Plano-concave and Cylindrical lens
• (B) Convex and Concave lens
• (C) Concave and Convex lens
• (D) Concave and Cylindrical lens

Question 61. Which of the following scheme is an attempt to make rural areas socially, economically and physically sustainable regions ?

• (A) Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission (SPMRM)
• (B) Mahatma Gandhi Jan-bhagidari Vikas Yojana (MGJVY)
• (C) Dang Area Development Programme
• (D) Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY)

Question 62. Arrange the following units of measure for digital information into correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going to the largest unit :

I. Kilobyte, II. Byte, III. Megabyte, IV. Terabyte, V. Gigabyte, VI. Bit

• (A) II, VI, I, IV, III, V
• (B) VI, II, I, III, V, IV
• (C) VI, II, I, IV, V, III
• (D) II, VI, I, III, IV, V

Question 63. On 23^th August 2023, Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas successfully test fired ASTRA missile, this missile is

• (A) Beyond Visual Range Surface to Air Missile
• (B) Beyond Visual Range Air to Air Missile
• (C) Within Visual Range Air to Air Missile
• (D) Within Visual Range Surface to Air Missile

Question 64. Satellites TeLEOS-2 and Lumelite-4 were launched in April 23 from Sriharikota by the launcher

• (A) SSLV-D2
• (B) LVM3-M4
• (C) PSLV-C55
• (D) GSLV-F12

Question 65. If in a material one dimension is reduced to the Nano range while the other two dimensions remain large, the structure so obtained is known as

• (A) Quantum step
• (B) Quantum well
• (C) Quantum dot
• (D) Quantum wire

Question 66. Which of the following file format is not a video file format ?

• (A) .MP3
• (B) .MP4
• (C) .MOV
• (D) .AVI

Question 67. Choose wrong statement regarding proteins :

• (A) We obtain proteins from both animals and plants.
• (B) Proteins are made of amino acids.
• (C) About 30 percent of our body weight comes from proteins.
• (D) Proteins are called building block of our body.

Question 68. The Red Blood cells of a person with Blood group ‘O’ contains Agglutinogen :

• (A) A and B both
• (B) Only B
• (C) Neither A nor B
• (D) Only A

Question 69. Which one of the following diseases is not a bacterial disease ?

• (A) Diphtheria
• (B) Plague
• (C) Pneumonia
• (D) Dengue

Question 70. Species of Plasmodium which causes Malignant Malaria :

• (A) Vivax
• (B) Falciparum
• (C) Ovale
• (D) Malarial

Question 71. NTU is the unit for measuring

• (A) Pressure of water
• (B) Temperature of water
• (C) Acidity of water
• (D) Turbidity of water

Question 72. Which of the following do not grow in polluted area ?

• (A) Pseudomonas
• (B) Algae
• (C) Lichen
• (D) Gymnosperms

Question 73. Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology is situated at

• (A) Thiruvananthapuram
• (B) Faridabad
• (C) Jodhpur
• (D) New Delhi

Question 74. Out of total Oxygen present in the earth’s atmosphere, the estimated production of oxygen by Amazon forest through photosynthesis is

• (A) 40 percent
• (B) 50 percent
• (C) 70 percent
• (D) 20 percent

Question 75. National Research Centre on camel is located at

• (A) Jodhpur
• (B) Avikanagar
• (C) Bikaner
• (D) Ajmer

Question 76. Which one of the following is a group of millet crops ?

• (A) Bajra, Maize, Koda, Sorghum
• (B) Ragi, Bajra, Koda, Moong
• (C) Koda, Bajra, Maize, Kangani
• (D) Sorghum, Koda, Kangani, Ragi

Question 77. Which of these companies is established by Government of Rajasthan with the aim to regulate developing needs of Information Technology skills in 21^st century ?

• (A) Rajasthan Knowledge Company Ltd.
• (B) Rajasthan Technology Pvt. Ltd.
• (C) Rajasthan Knowledge Corporation Ltd.
• (D) Rajasthan Technology Corporation Ltd.

Question 78. A bill was passed by Rajasthan Assembly in 2023 to establish second Rajasthan Veterinary and Animal Sciences University at

• (A) Ganganagar
• (B) Jobner
• (C) Ajmer
• (D) Jodhpur

Question 79. Which of these natural resources is considered as non-renewable resource ?

• (A) Timber
• (B) Fossil Fuels
• (C) Solar Energy
• (D) Wind Energy

Question 80. A statement is followed by two arguments I and II. Choose which of the argument/s is/are strong :

Statement : Should all diesel engines be replaced by electric engines in trains ?

Arguments : I. Yes, diesel engine causes a lot of pollution.

II. No, India does not produce enough electricity to fulfil even the domestic needs.

• (A) Neither argument I nor argument II is strong.
• (B) Both of the arguments are strong.
• (C) Only argument II is strong.
• (D) Only argument I is strong.

Question 81. A statement is followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption/s is/are implicit in the given statement :

Statement : If it does not rain throughout this month, most of the farmers would be in trouble this year.

Assumptions : I. Timely rain is essential for farming.

II. Most of the farmers are generally dependent on rains.

• (A) Neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit.
• (B) Both of the assumptions are implicit.
• (C) Only assumption II is implicit.
• (D) Only assumption I is implicit.

Question 82. Study the given statement then decide which of the suggested course of action follows logically :

Statement : The meteorological department has issued a notification forecasting less rainfall during next year’s monsoon.

Course of Action : I. The government should make arguments to provide water to the affected areas.

II. The farmers should be advised to be ready for the eventuality.

• (A) Neither I nor II follows.
• (B) Both I and II follow.
• (C) Only II follows.
• (D) Only I follows.

Question 83. A statement is followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions and decide which of them logically follows :

Statement : After joining, Municipal Commissioner told to people of city “A’ – “My first and foremost task is to beautify this city like Indore.”

Conclusions : I. The people of city “A” are not aware about the present condition of the city.

II. The Commissioner has worked in Indore and has good experience of beautifying cities.

• (A) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
• (B) Both of the conclusions follow.
• (C) Only conclusion II follows.
• (D) Only Conclusion I follows.

Question 84. Next term of the following sequence is :

A^3/2 B₂, C^9/2 F₁₈, E^15/2 J₅₀, G^21/2 N₉₈, ?

• (A) H^29/2 S₁₇₂
• (B) H^27/2 R₁₈₂
• (C) I^27/2 R₁₆₂
• (D) I^29/2 R₁₇₂

Question 85. In a certain code language, ABONDONMENT is written as DNOBAOTNEMN and ESTABLISHED is written as BATSELDEHSI. Then in the same code language, GERMINATION will be written as ?

• (A) NMEGRONTIAG
• (B) GOERGONITAN
• (C) IMERGNONITA
• (D) IMREGNNOITA

Question 86. A family has eight members. E is the mother of F and G. A is the son-in-law of E. C is the daughter of G. D is the maternal grandfather of C. D has one son and one daughter. H is the sister-in-law of G. B is the niece of F. How is F related to A ?

• (A) Sister-in-law
• (B) Sister
• (C) Brother-in-law
• (D) Brother

Question 87. Five girls are standing in a ground at a certain distance. Rekha and Beena are 18 meter apart form each other. Veena is standing somewhere in the mid of Rekha and Beena. Pinky is standing 5 meter North to Rekha. Rekha is 12 meter West to Veena. Yamini is standing 8 meter South to Beena. What is the shortest distance between Pinky and Yamini ?

• (A) 33 meter
• (B) 31 meter
• (C) 23 meter
• (D) 13 meter

Question 88. Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a row. T and U Have one person in between them. V is immediate right to P. Q is immediate left to U. There is one person between S and P. S is not the neighbour of V. V and U have two persons between them. R is immediate left to P. Which person is sitting exactly in the middle of the row ?

• (A) Q
• (B) T
• (C) P
• (D) V

Question 89. Images of consonants of the capital English alphabets are observed in a mirror. What is the number of images of these which look like their original shapes ?

• (A) 11
• (B) 9
• (C) 7
• (D) 5

Question 90. A solid cube has been formed with 64 smaller cubes. How many smaller cubes will not be visible in any condition ?

• (A) 8
• (B) 6
• (C) 4
• (D) 2

Question 91. Three students A, B and C of a school receive cash prize in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 in a competition. Then the school principal gives ₹ 4,000 to each student. As a result now the cash prize of A, B and C becomes in the ratio 5 : 6 : 7. How much did B get in the competition ?

• (A) ₹ 12,000
• (B) ₹ 10,000
• (C) ₹ 8,000
• (D) ₹ 6,000

Question 92. A student multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3. What is the percentage error in the calculation ?

• (A) 64%
• (B) 54%
• (C) 44%
• (D) 34%

Question 93. In a group of 400 boys, each boy plays atleast one of the games cricket, hocket and football. 185 play cricket, 165 play hockey and 160 play football. 40 boys play only cricket and football. 20 boys play only hockey and cricket. 10 boys play only hockey and football. how many boys play all the three games ?

• (A) 20
• (B) 18
• (C) 15
• (D) 10

Question 94. If S represents the area of a square inscribed in a circle and T represents the area of an equilateral triangle inscribed in the same circle, then which of the following is correct ?

• (A) 3√3 T = 8 S
• (B) 3√3 T = 4 S
• (C) 4 T = 3√3 S
• (D) 8 T = 3√3 S

Question 95. Following table shows runs scored by four batsmen in both innings of a test match. Who is the fastest run scorer in the test match ?

Batsman	First Inning		Second Inning
	Runs scored	Balls faced	Runs scored	Balls faced
P	79	91	56	154
Q	05	12	50	85
R	14	76	61	99
S	37	50	13	55

• (A) P
• (B) Q
• (C) R
• (D) S

Question 96. If the median A and mode B of following distribution satisfy the relation 7 (B – A) = 9C, then find the value of C :

Class	0-30	30-60	60-90	90-120
Frequency	4	5	7	4

• (A) 9
• (B) 8
• (C) 7
• (D) 6

Question 97. 2/3 of a principal amount is deposited in the bank at compound interest at the rate of 10% per annum and rest of the principal amount is deposited in the post office at the simple interest rate of 15% per annum. if the difference between compound interest and simple interest for two years be ₹ 480, then total principal amount is equal to

• (A) ₹ 16,000
• (B) ₹ 12,000
• (C) ₹ 10,000
• (D) ₹ 8,000

Question 98. Find the probability that the product of four numbers is divisible by 5 or 10.

• (A) 256/369
• (B) 369/625
• (C) 273/2500
• (D) 256/625

Question 99. As per a notification issued recently by the Department of Forest, Environment and Climate Change of Rajasthan, how many wet-lands are there in the State ?

• (A) 50
• (B) 44
• (C) 38
• (D) 30

Question 100. Where will the “Artificial Intelligence of Things Innovation Hub” be established in the Rajasthan ?

• (A) Kota
• (B) Bikaner
• (C) Jodhpur
• (D) Jaipur

Question 101. The National Tiger Conservation Authority has accorded the fifth tiger reserve in Rajasthan at

• (A) Sorsan – Banarn reserve
• (B) Hamirgarh – Bhilwara reserve
• (C) Dholpur – Karauli reserve
• (D) Nagpahar – Ajmer reserve

Question 102. In which of the following cities India’s first 3D printed post office has been inaugurated recently ?

• (A) Bengaluru
• (B) Kolkata
• (C) New Delhi
• (D) Mumbai

Question 103. “m” men and “n” women are to be seated in a row so that no two women sit together. If m > n, the number of ways in which they can be seated, is

Question 104. Which of the following institutions launched a centralised Web Portal ‘UDGAM’ recently ?

• (A) University Grants Commission
• (B) The National Highways Authority of India
• (C) Indian Space Research Organisation
• (D) The Reserve Bank of India

Question 105. Read the following statements carefully :

Statement 1 : According to TIME Magazine, S.S. Rajamouli has been named among the top “Pioneers” of 2023, while Shahrukh Khan has been named among the top “Icons” of 2023.

Statement 2 : The TIME Magazine’s 100 most influential people list has been divided into six major categories – Leader, Titan, Pioneer, Artist, Icon and Innovator.

• Select the correct option among the following :
• (A) Statements 1 and 2 both are true.
• (B) Statements 1 and 2 both are false.
• (C) Only statement 2 is true.
• (D) Only statement 1 is true.

Question 106. United Nation’s General Assembly has recently elected Dennis Francis to serve as President of its 78^th session. He belongs to which of the following countries ?

• (A) Uganda
• (B) Brazil
• (C) Chile
• (D) Trinidad and Tobago

Question 107. In July 2023, a new variety of urea was launched by the Prime Minister of India at Sikar, Rajasthan. What is the name of this new variety of urea ?

• (A) Urea Silver
• (B) Urea Gold
• (C) Urea Platinum
• (D) Urea Diamond

Question 108. To identify practical applications of artificial intelligence, “AI for Good Global Summit 2023” was recently held in which of the following countries ?

• (A) Switzerland
• (B) Japan
• (C) China
• (D) United States of America

Question 109. Which of the following personalities has been nominated for the Sahitya Academy Yuva Puraskaar 2023 for the Rajasthani language ?

• (A) Devilal Mahiya
• (B) Dr. Ramkumar Ghotad
• (C) Badri Narayan
• (D) Atul Chaturvedi

Question 110. India’s first ever outdoor Museum ‘Shaheedi Park’ has been recently inaugurated in which city ?

• (A) Srinagar
• (B) Prayagraj
• (C) Delhi
• (D) Chandigarh

Question 111. Recently the Ecuadorians have made a historic decision by rejecting oil drilling by a referendum in which of the following biodiverse regions of Amazon ?

• (A) Manu National Park
• (B) Jau National Park
• (C) Yasuni National Park
• (D) Tumucumaque National Park

Question 112. Which Ministry is associated with the ‘Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar’ ?

• (A) Union Rural Development Ministry
• (B) Union Culture Ministry
• (C) Union Science and Technology Ministry
• (D) Union Defence Ministry

Question 113. 9^th ‘India Region Conference’ of the Common Wealth Parliamentary Association was held in which of the following cities ?

• (A) Kota
• (B) Udaipur
• (C) Jodhpur
• (D) Jaipur

Question 114. What position is achieved by India in the medal telly of FISU World University Games 2023 ?

• (A) 7^th
• (B) 6^th
• (C) 5^th
• (D) 4^th

Question 115. India defeated Malaysia in the final of Fourth Asian Champions Trophy of Hockey on 12^th August, 2023. In which stadium this match was played ?

• (A) Mayor Radhakrishnan Stadium
• (B) Sree Kanteerava Stadium
• (C) M. Chinna Swamy Stadium
• (D) Jawahar Lal Nehru Stadium

Question 116. Rajeshwari Kumari, who stood fifth in the recently held World Championship at Baku, Azerbaijan, has qualified for the Paris Olympics. She is related to which of the following sports ?

• (A) Shooting
• (B) Archery
• (C) Long Jump
• (D) Gymnastics

Question 117. India’s Kamaljeet clinched Gold Medal on 24^th July, 2023 in Men’s individual 50 metre Pistol Event at ISSF Junior Shooting World Championship 2023. In which of the following countries was the event held ?

• (A) France
• (B) Nepal
• (C) Canada
• (D) South Korea

Question 118. Recently C.A. Bhavani Devi of India won a Bronze Medal in the Asian Fencing Championship. She lost to player of which country in the Semi-final ?

• (A) UAE
• (B) Egypt
• (C) Uzbekistan
• (D) Japan

Question 119. Which institution in India has been selected for Gandhi Peace Award 2021 ?

• (A) Geeta press, Gorakhpur
• (B) Sulabh International
• (C) Vivekanand Kendra, Kanyakumari
• (D) Ram Krishna Mission

Question 120. In the excavation of which of the following ancient site the huge collection of iron materials is found related to Malava Republic ?

• (A) Nagar (Nainwan)
• (B) Nagari (Madhyamika)
• (C) Sambhar
• (D) Rairh (Tonk)

Question 121. The brave Chauhan ruler of Ajmer who conquered Delhi and annexed it in his kingdom was-

• (A) Vigraharaj IV
• (B) Arnoraj
• (C) Ajayaraj
• (D) Prithviraj III

Question 122. The Arab traveller Suleman visited India in the reign of Pratihar King-

• (A) Nagbhatt II
• (B) Nagbhatt I
• (C) Vatsraj
• (D) Bhoj I

Question 123. With which of the following Prajamandal Movement Kanhaiya Lal Mittal, Mangilal Bavya and Makbul Alam were associated ?

• (A) Jhalawar Rajya Praja Mandal
• (B) Banswara Rajya Praja Mandal
• (C) Bundi Rajya Praja Parishad
• (D) Karauli Rajya Praja Mandal

Question 124. When Matsya Sangh was merged into Vrihat Rajasthan ?

• (A) 18^th April, 1948
• (B) 25^th January, 1950
• (C) 30^th March, 1949
• (D) 15^th May, 1949

Question 125. In which Rajput Thikana Moti Lal Tejawat was working on the post of Kamdar prior to launching the Aki Movement ?

• (A) Jharol
• (B) Salumbar
• (C) Kothariya
• (D) Devgarh

Question 126. What is the similarity between Jharol (Udaipur), Kurada (Nagore) and Sabania (Bikaner) ?

• (A) Centre of Chalcolithic culture
• (B) Centre of Palaeolithic age
• (C) Minor stone implements found
• (D) Storehouse of copper implements

Question 127. The renowned artist Muhammed Shah was a court artist (Painter) of which Maharaja of Jaipur ?

• (A) Sawai Ram Singh II
• (B) Sawai Jagat Singh
• (C) Sawai Pratap Singh
• (D) Sawai Jai Singh

Question 128. The men of which sect of Rajasthan perform the Agni Dance (Fire dance) ?

• (A) Bishnoi Sect
• (B) Ramsnehi Sect
• (C) Jasnathi Siddha
• (D) Dadupanth

Question 129. The names of how many local dialects are mentioned in the Katha collection called Kuvlayamala ?

• (A) 18
• (B) 17
• (C) 16
• (D) 15

Question 130. The author of ‘Achaldas Khichi re Vachanika’ is

• (A) Gopaldan Kaviya
• (B) Kesari Singh Barahat
• (C) Ram Nath Kaviya
• (D) Charan Shivdas

Question 131. Which of the following is wrongly matched ?

• (A) Ramdevji – Ramdevra
• (B) Mallinathji – Gagron
• (C) Tejaji – Kharnal
• (D) Pabuji – Kolu

Question 132. The Chandrabhaga fair is held every year in the month of Kartik at-

• (A) Bundi
• (B) Banswara
• (C) Dungarpur
• (D) Jhalrapatan

Question 133. Which of the following fort of Rajasthan is not a Giri Fort ?

• (A) Gagron Fort
• (B) Jalore Fort
• (C) Chittorgarh Fort
• (D) Siwana Fort

Question 134. Who among the following discovered ‘Surkotda’, a site of Harappan culture ?

• (A) B.B. Lal
• (B) S.R. Rao
• (C) Y.D. Sharam
• (D) Jagatpati Joshi

Question 135. In which dynasty did Chandragupta II marry his daughter Prabhavati and strengthened his position ?

• (A) Lichchhvi Dynasty
• (B) Kadamb Dynasty
• (C) Vakataka Dynasty
• (D) Naga Dynasty

Question 136. The Stupa of Bharhut is a fine example of-

• (A) Chola architecture
• (B) Kushan architecture
• (C) Gupta architecture
• (D) Shunga Architecture

Question 137. The author of ‘Lalit Vigraharaj’ drama was-

• (A) Hemchandra
• (B) Kalhan
• (C) Somdeva
• (D) Mahesh

Question 138. Which of the following poet was given the title of ‘Andhra Kavita Pitamah’ by Krishnadev Ray ?

• (A) Allasani Peddana
• (B) Bhattumurti
• (C) Tenali Ramkrishana
• (D) Pingli Suranna

Question 139. In which of the following palace built by Akbar in Fatehpur Sikri the Buddhist architecture was followed ?

• (A) Shaikh Salim Chisti’s Tomb
• (B) Buland Darwaja
• (C) Panch Mahal
• (D) Turki Sultana’s palace

Question 140. Who was appointed first Raj Pramukh of Rajasthan ?

• (A) Maharaja Umed Singh of Jodhpur
• (B) Maharaja Karni Singh of Bikaner
• (C) Maharaja Sawai Man Singh II of Jaipur
• (D) Maharana Bhagwat Singh of Udaipur

Question 141. Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded Servants of India Society in the year

• (A) 1907
• (B) 1906
• (C) 1904
• (D) 1905

Question 142. Who was the President of the special session of Indian National Congress held in Calcutta in September, 1920 in which the resolution of Non-Cooperation Movement was passed ?

• (A) Dadabhai Naoroji
• (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
• (C) Lala Lajpat Rai
• (D) Vijaya Raghavachari

Question 143. Which of the following were the members of State Reorganisation Commission formed by Indian Government in August, 1953 ?

I. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru

II. Justice Fazal Ali

III. K.M. Pannikar

IV. Hridayanath Kunjaru

• Select the correct answer by using the code given below :
• (A) II and III
• (B) II and IV
• (C) II, III and IV
• (D) I, II, III and IV

Question 144. In which sea do river Elbe and river Rhine drain their water ?

• (A) North Sea
• (B) Mediterranean Sea
• (C) Adriatic Sea
• (D) Black Sea

Question 145. The spread of which of the following Sufi sect was mostly limited to Sindh, Multan and Punjab ?

• (A) Qadiri
• (B) Naqshbandi
• (C) Suhrawardi
• (D) Chisti

Question 146. The problem of desertification is least in which of the following continents ?

• (A) Europe
• (B) Australia
• (C) Asia
• (D) Africa

Question 147. Consider the following statements :

I. The Kashmir Humalayas are famous for ‘Karewa’ formations.

II. Nalagarh Dun is the largest of all Duns.

III. Namcha Barwa mountain peak is located in Arunachal Himalayas.

IV. ‘Valley of Flowers’ is situated in Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas.

• Code :
• (A) I, II, III and IV are correct.
• (B) II and III are correct.
• (C) I, III and IV are correct.
• (D) I, II and III are correct.

Question 148. Which areas of India receive rainfall from North-East Monsoon ?

I. Tamil Nadu Coast

II. Gujarat Coast

III. Southern Andhra Pradesh

IV. South-East Karnataka

• Code :
• (A) I, II, III & IV
• (B) I, III & IV
• (C) II, III & IV
• (D) I, II & III

Question 149. Which is not a correct match ?

• Lake – Location in State
• (A) Bhim Tal – Uttarakhand
• (B) Pulicat – Tamil Nadu
• (C) Loktak – Manipur
• (D) Roopkund – Himachal Pradesh

Question 150. Among the following which is not an Industrial Region of U.S.A. ?

• (A) Cincinnati Indianapolis Region
• (B) Great Kanhawa Valley
• (C) Midlands Region
• (D) Michigan Lake Region

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