RPSC RAS (Prelims) Exam, 2024 : Solved Question Paper (02/02/2025)

Exam BoardRajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC)
Exam NameRajasthan State and Subordinate Services Combined Competitive Examination, 2024
Exam Date02-02-2025 (Sunday)
Exam Time12:00 PM to 03:00 PM
Answer Key Date02-02-2025 (Sunday)
Exam ModeOffline
Question paper languageHindi & English
Question paper typeObjective
SubjectGeneral Knowledge and General Science
Total Question150
Maximum Marks200
Negative Marking1/3
Time03.00 Hours

Note :- This question paper is solved as per the official answer key of Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC).

This question paper includes questions related to the following subjects :-

  1. History, Art, Culture, Literature, Tradition & Heritage of Rajasthan
  2. Indian History
  3. Geography of World
  4. Geography of India
  5. Geography of Rajasthan
  6. Indian Constitution, Political System & Governance
  7. Political and Administrative System of Rajasthan
  8. Economic Concepts and Indian Economy
  9. Economy of Rajasthan
  10. Science & Technology
  11. Reasoning & Mental Ability
  12. Current Affairs

1. The four segments of the Golden Quadrilateral join the following cities :

(I) Delhi – Mumbai

(II) Mumbai – Chennai

(III) Chennai – Kolkata

(IV) Kolkata – Delhi

Consider the length of the above segments in descending order and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Codes :

  • (A) III, IV, I, II
  • (B) III, IV, II, I
  • (C) IV, III, II, I
  • (D) IV, III, I, II
Answer- (A) III, IV, I, II

2. Consider the following statements :

(I) Luni Basin and Shekhawati region are the Sub-regions of Rajasthan Bangar.

(II) Ghaggar Plain covers mostly Hanumangarh and Gangangar district.

(III) Nagaur uplands have salty lakes and inland drainage.

(IV) Aravalli ranges are rich in all types of minerals.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Codes :

  • (A) I and II
  • (B) I, II and III
  • (C) II, III and IV
  • (D) I, II, III and IV
Answer- (B) I, II and III

3. Which of the following group of districts of Rajasthan is correctly arranged in ascending order as per average rainfall during South-West Monsoon ?

  • (A) Jalore, Jaipur, Kota
  • (B) Jaisalmer, Banswara, Rajsamand
  • (C) Nagaur, Dhaulpur, Ajmer
  • (D) Churu, Baran, Bhilwara
Answer- (A) Jalore, Jaipur, Kota

4. Which is not a correct match ?

Nuclear Power Plant – State

  • (A) Kalpakkam – Tamil Nadu
  • (B) Kakrapar – Gujarat
  • (C) Kaiga – Tamil Nadu
  • (D) Narora – Uttar Pradesh
Answer- (C) Kaiga – Tamil Nadu

5. Which type of soil is dominant in Jaipur, Dausa and Alwar districts?

  • (A) Entisol
  • (B) Inceptisols
  • (C) Vertisols
  • (D) Alfisols
Answer- (D) Alfisols

6. In the year 2021-22, contribution of Rajasthan in total production of Bajra in the country (in percentage) was

  • (A) 46.30
  • (B) 87.69
  • (C) 38.98
  • (D) 34.69
Answer- (C) 38.98

7. Medtech Medical Devices Park is located at

  • (A) Ganeshwar Extension, Sikar
  • (B) Maal Ki Toos, Udaipur
  • (C) Nainwa, Bundi
  • (D) Boranada, Jodhpur (undivided)
Answer- (D) Boranada, Jodhpur (undivided)

8. In which district of Rajasthan ‘Khadin’ is a popular method of water conservation ?

  • (A) Nagaur
  • (B) Bikaner
  • (C) Jaisalmer
  • (D) Pali
Answer- (C) Jaisalmer

9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List-I (District)List-II (River)
(I) Udaipur(a) Sabi & Ruparel
(II) Bundi(b) Gambhiri & Parvati
(III) Bharatpur(c) Som & Jakham
(IV) Alwar(d) Kural

Codes :

  • (A) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
  • (B) I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a
  • (C) I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-d
  • (D) I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a
Answer- (D) I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a

10. At which of the following places, asbestos mines are located in Rajasthan ?

  • (A) Arjunpura and Piparda
  • (B) Kura and Mangol
  • (C) Karpura and Fatehgarh
  • (D) Depura and Dingri
Answer- (A) Arjunpura and Piparda

11. The most important resources of lignite in Rajasthan are located at

  • (A) Palana, Agucha and Merta
  • (B) Palana, Kasnau and Jagpura
  • (C) Kapurdi, Merta and Kasnau
  • (D) Kapurdi, Palana and Jagpura
Answer- (C) Kapurdi, Merta and Kasnau

12. Which is not a correct match ?

Conservation Reserve (as on May 2023) – District

  • (A) Rankhar – Jalore
  • (B) Mansamata – Jhunjhunu
  • (C) Sorsan – Bundi
  • (D) Hamirgarh – Bhilwara
Answer- (C) Sorsan – Bundi

13. Mount Abu and Ranakpur are included in which tourist circuit ?

  • (A) Dhundhar
  • (B) Shekhawati
  • (C) Godwar
  • (D) Mewar
Answer- (C) Godwar

14. The national executive of which political party called for the dissolution of the Constituent Assembly and its re-election by adult suffrage ?

  • (A) Hindu Mahasabha
  • (B) Socialist Party
  • (C) Swaraj Party
  • (D) Muslim League
Answer- (B) Socialist Party

15. The correct descending order of districts in Rajasthan based on total literacy rate (census 2011) is

  • (A) Jaipur, Jhunjhunu, Kota, Sikar, Alwar
  • (B) Kota, Jaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Alwar
  • (C) Jhunjhunu, Kota, Sikar, Jaipur, Alwar
  • (D) Kota, Jhunjhunu, Jaipur, Alwar, Sikar
Answer- (B) Kota, Jaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Alwar

16. Fundamental Rights provided by which of the following groups of Articles are granted only to ‘Citizens’ of India ?

  • (A) Articles 14, 20, 23 and 30
  • (B) Articles 15, 21, 25 and 28
  • (C) Articles 20, 21, 25 and 30
  • (D) Articles 15, 16, 19 and 30
Answer- (D) Articles 15, 16, 19 and 30

17. In which year it was inserted in the Constitution of India that the State shall secure free legal aid to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities ?

  • (A) 1978
  • (B) 1976
  • (C) 1975
  • (D) 1979
Answer- (B) 1976

18. Match List-A with List-B and identify the correct answer from the codes given below :

List-A (Case)List-B (Amendment challenged)
(I) Indira Gandhi V. Raj Narain(a) 42th Amendment
(II) Minerva Mills V. Union of India(b) 52th Amendment
(III) Kihoto Hollohan V. Zachillu(c) 39th Amendment
(IV) P. Sambamurthy V. State of A.P.(d) 32th Amendment

Codes :

  • (A) I-a, II-c, III-d, IV-b
  • (B) I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d
  • (C) I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-a
  • (D) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d
Answer- (D) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d

19. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the election of the President of India ?

  • (A) The President of India is elected by the members of an Electoral College consisting of (a) the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and the Union Territories with Legislative Assembly.
  • (B) Value of vote for each of the members of the Electoral Collage is decided based on the population census of 1971 and it will continue to be so till population of the first census taken after the year 2026 have been published.
  • (C) The elections are held in accordance with the system of Proportional Representation by means of single transferable vote.
  • (D) Every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one hundred in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly.
(D) Every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one hundred in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. Answer- Coming Soon

20. Identify the correct statement regarding the Election Commission of India.

  • (A) Election Commission of India is a permanent Constitutional Body and it was established in accordance with the Constitution of 25th January, 1952
  • (B) The concept of multi-member Commission has been in operation since 1995 with decision making power by majority vote.
  • (C) Under the Constitution, the Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
  • (D) The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners and they have tenure of five years, or up to the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier.
Answer- (C) Under the Constitution, the Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.

21. Which of the following statements regarding the powers of the speaker of Lok Sabha are correct ? Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

(I) The speaker presides over a joint sitting of both the houses of Parliament.

(II) When a Money Bill is transferred from the Lower House to the Upper House, the speaker shall endorse on the bill his certificate that it is a Money Bill.

(III) While a resolution for his removal is under consideration, the speaker shall neither preside nor take part in its proceedings.

(IV) The speaker does not vote in the House except when there is equality of votes.

Codes :

  • (A) Only I and III
  • (B) Only I and II
  • (C) Only I, II and IV
  • (D) Only I, II and III
Answer- (C) Only I, II and IV

22. Which of the following is a matter on which the Finance Commission notified by the Ministry of Finance on 31th December, 2023 shall not make its recommendation ?

  • (A) The distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be or may be divided between them under Chapter I Part XII of the Constitution.
  • (B) The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • (C) The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities.
  • (D) Review the present arrangements on Financing Climate Management initiatives.
Answer- (D) Review the present arrangements on Financing Climate Management initiatives.

23. Consider the following statements and identify the correct answer from the codes given below :

(I) The Congress won 145 Lok Sabha seats in 2004 election.

(II) The BJP won 133 Lok Sabha seats in 2004 election.

(III) The CPI (M) won 48 Lok Sabha seats in 2004 election.

Codes :

  • (A) Only I is correct.
  • (B) Only I and II are correct.
  • (C) Only II and III are correct.
  • (D) Only I and III are correct.
Answer- (A) Only I is correct.

24. The Central Vigilance Commission was formed on the basis of the recommendations of which of the following committee ?

  • (A) Santhanam Committee
  • (B) Kelkar Committee
  • (C) Swaran Singh Committee
  • (D) Bakshi Tek Chand Committee
Answer- (A) Santhanam Committee

25. Which of the following Chief Minister faced President’s Rule in Rajasthan for maximum number of times ?

  • (A) Hari Dev Joshi
  • (B) Bhairon Singh Shekhawat
  • (C) Jai Narayan Vyas
  • (D) Shiv Charan Mathur
Answer- (B) Bhairon Singh Shekhawat

26. As of the end of the November 2024, how many women were there in the Rajasthan Council of Ministers ?

  • (A) Only 1
  • (B) Only 2
  • (C) Only 3
  • (D) Only 5
Answer- (B) Only 2

27. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding subordinate legislation in Rajasthan Legislative Assembly ?

  • (A) The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines all “orders” framed in pursuance of the provision of the constitution or a statute delegating power to subordinate authority to make such order.
  • (B) The Committee may examine provisions of Bills which seek to delegate powers to make orders.
  • (C) Speaker refers Bills containing provisions for delegation of legislative powers to the Committee.
  • (D) This is done by Rule 240 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly.
Answer- (D) This is done by Rule 240 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly.

28. Which of the following statement in not correct regarding the Governor of Rajasthan ?

  • (A) On the basis of the recommendation of the States Reorganisation Commission, the institution of Rajpramukh was abolished.
  • (B) The institution of Rajpramukh was abolished by the 7th Constitutional amendment.
  • (C) Gurumukh Nihal Singh was appointed as the first Governor of Rajasthan on 1st November, 1956 AD.
  • (D) Haribhau Kusanrao Bagde assumed the office of the Governor of Rajasthan on 31st July, 2024.
Answer- (C) Gurumukh Nihal Singh was appointed as the first Governor of Rajasthan on 1st November, 1956 AD.

29. Who becomes the chairperson of District Planning Committee in Rajasthan ?

  • (A) District Collector
  • (B) Chief Executive Officer of Zila Parishad
  • (C) Member of Parliament
  • (D) Zila Pramukh
Answer- (D) Zila Pramukh

30. By which Act, the Jaipur Development Authority was established ?

  • (A) Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1982
  • (B) Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1983
  • (C) Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1984
  • (D) Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1985
Answer- (A) Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1982

31. Which of the following group of princely states had enacted legislations on Panchayats prior to independence ?

  • (A) Alwar, Banswara, Karauli, Sirohi
  • (B) Banswara, Bikaner, Bharatpur, Bundi
  • (C) Jodhpur, Jaipur, Udaipur, Sirohi
  • (D) Karauli, Bundi, Alwar, Jaisalmer
Answer- (C) Jodhpur, Jaipur, Udaipur, Sirohi

32. Which Article of the Constitution prescribes mandatory consultation with RPSC on disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under Government of Rajasthan ?

  • (A) Article 320 (3)
  • (B) Article 318 (1)
  • (C) Article 322 (2)
  • (D) Article 325 (4)
Answer- (A) Article 320 (3)

33. From which of the following date Pramil Kumar Mathur assumed the office of the Registrar General of Rajasthan High Court ?

  • (A) 20/02/2024
  • (B) 20/03/2024
  • (C) 20/04/2024
  • (D) 20/05/2024
Answer- (C) 20/04/2024

34. Under Section 7 of the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Deputy Lokayukta Act, 1973, the Lokayukta is empowered to investigate allegations against ministers and public servants in certain cases. Which of the following subject is not part of those investigations ?

  • (A) Unreasonable harm or suffering caused by public servants.
  • (B) Abusing his official position as a public servant to obtain illegal benefits for himself or any other person.
  • (C) Sexual harassment of women, caste discrimination and violence against children.
  • (D) Can be related to being guilty of corruption of lack of transparency in the capacity of a public servant.
Answer- (C) Sexual harassment of women, caste discrimination and violence against children.

35. What is the amount of security deposit to contest the election of a Mayor by a candidate belonging to the general category ?

  • (A) ₹ 10,000
  • (B) ₹ 20,000
  • (C) ₹ 30,000
  • (D) ₹ 40,000
Answer- (C) ₹ 30,000

36. State Information Commissioner is appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a Committee. Who of the following is not a member of this Committee ?

  • (A) The Chief Minister
  • (B) The Leader of opposition in Legislative Assembly
  • (C) A cabinet minister to be nominated by Chief Minister
  • (D) Chief Justice of High Court
Answer- (D) Chief Justice of High Court

37. Among the following Chairpersons of Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission who could complete a five year term ?

  • (A) Justice Ms. Kanta Bhatnagar
  • (B) Justice N. K. Jain
  • (C) Justice S. Sageer Ahmed
  • (D) Justice Prakash Tatia
Answer- (B) Justice N. K. Jain

38. The aim of citizen’s charter is not-

  • (A) Quality and time frame service delivery
  • (B) Citizen friendly governance
  • (C) Accountable Government
  • (D) To create effective hearing system of public demands
Answer- (D) To create effective hearing system of public demands

39. निम्नलिखित में से किस वर्ष में भारत की सकल राष्ट्रीय आय एवं शुद्ध राष्ट्रीय आय में वार्षिक वृद्धि की दर प्रचलित एवं स्थिर दोनों ही कीतमों पर ऋणात्मक रही हैं ?

  • (A) 2018-19
  • (B) 2019-20
  • (C) 2020-21
  • (D) 2021-22
Answer- (C) 2020-21

40. Which of the following statement is related to the benefit of the “Input Tax Credit Mechanism” of GST ?

  • (A) This avoid double taxation.
  • (B) This avoid tax on production.
  • (C) This provide tax relief to start-ups.
  • (D) There is no need to keep records for producers.
Answer- (A) This avoid double taxation.

41. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding RAJ NIVESH Portal of Rajasthan ?

  • (A) RAJ NIVESH portal provides a single point (online) interface and a time bound clearance system by acting as a one-stop information/registration/approval/tracking centre for clearances/approvals.
  • (B) It is a “One Stop Shop” (OSS) facility directly under Chief Minister to facilitate large investment proposals more effectively and expedite requisite approvals/ clearances for the same under one roof.
  • (C) Rules for the One Stop Shop has been notified on 26.11.2020.
  • (D) The portal also provides updated information relating to relevant rules, regulations, orders and policy initiatives and schemes for guidance of investors.
Answer- (B) It is a “One Stop Shop” (OSS) facility directly under Chief Minister to facilitate large investment proposals more effectively and expedite requisite approvals/ clearances for the same under one roof.

42. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of inflation in India ?

(I) Core inflation include the prices of food and energy.

(II) Headline inflation exclude food inflation.

(III) Headline inflation is more volatile in nature than core inflation.

Select the answer using the codes given below :

  • (A) I and II only
  • (B) I and III only
  • (C) II and III only
  • (D) Only III
Answer- (D) Only III

43. In List-I, the names of agricultural crops are given and in List-II, the names of the states which stood first in the production of these crops in 2021-22 are given. Match them by using codes :

List-IList-II
(I) Nutricereals(a) Rajasthan
(II) Total pulses(b) Karnataka
(III) Groundnut(c) Madhya Pradesh
(IV) Soyabean(d) Maharashtra
(e) Gujarat

Codes :

  • (A) I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-d
  • (B) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b
  • (C) I-b, II-c, III-e, IV-d
  • (D) I-d, II-e, III-b, IV-c
Answer- (C) I-b, II-c, III-e, IV-d

44. Consider the following statements regarding “National Food Security Act” (NFSA) in India :

(I) It was enacted on July 5, 2013.

(II) Around 50 crore persons have been covered under NFSA at present.

(III) The Act legally entitles upto 75% of the urban population and 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized food grains.

Choose the correct option using codes :

  • (A) Both II and III are correct.
  • (B) Both I and II are correct.
  • (C) Both I and III are correct.
  • (D) I, II and III are correct.
Answer- (C) Both I and III are correct.

45. Consider the following statements regarding World Happiness Report- 2024 :

(I) India ranked 126th out of more than 140 countries, which is lower than its neighbouring countries including China, Nepal, Pakistan, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.

(II) India’s ranking has remained relatively stagnant over the years, indicating limited progress in improving the overall happiness and well-being of its population.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

  • (A) Only I
  • (B) Only II
  • (C) Both I and II
  • (D) Neither I nor II
Answer- (B) Only II

46. Worker to Population Ratio (WPR) is defined as

  • (A) Percentage of employed persons in labour force
  • (B) Percentage of employed persons in working age population
  • (C) Percentage of employed persons in total population
  • (D) Percentage of working age population in total population
Answer- (C) Percentage of employed persons in total population

47. Which of the following is not associated with financial sector reforms in India initiated after 1991 ?

  • (A) Capital adequacy
  • (B) Non-performing assets
  • (C) F.R.B.M. Act (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management)
  • (D) SARFAESI Act
Answer- (C) F.R.B.M. Act (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management)

48. Consider the following statements regarding fiscal deficit of Rajasthan :

(I) The actual fiscal deficit in the year 2022-23 has been 3.76 percent of the State GDP.

(II) This is less than the limit prescribed by the F.R.B.M. Act, 2005.

(III) The fiscal deficit of 2022-23 was higher than that of 2021-22.

Choose the correct option :

  • (A) Both I and III are correct.
  • (B) Both I and II are correct.
  • (C) Both II and III are correct.
  • (D) All I, II and III are correct.
Answer- (A) Both I and III are correct.

49. Consider the following statements regarding targets of Rajasthan Mineral Policy-2024 :

(I) Provide employment to 50 lakh people by 2029-30 and over 1 crore people (direct and indirect) by 2046-47.

(II) Enhance the minerals sector’s contribution to state’s GSDP from 3.4 percent in 2023-24 to 5 percent by 2029-30 and to 8 percent by 2046-47.

(III) Expand the number of minerals under extraction from 58 to 70 by 2047.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

  • (A) I and II only
  • (B) II and III only
  • (C) I and III only
  • (D) I, II and III
Answer- (D) I, II and III

50. The correct share of various sector in Gross Fixed Capital Formation of Rajasthan in descending order is

  • (A) Manufacturing, Mining, Agriculture, Construction
  • (B) Construction, Agriculture, Manufacturing, Mining
  • (C) Construction, Manufacturing, Agriculture, Mining
  • (D) Manufacturing, Agriculture, Mining, Construction
Answer- (C) Construction, Manufacturing, Agriculture, Mining

51. Ease of Doing Business ranking for the states in India is released by-

  • (A) Department of Industry and Commerce
  • (B) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
  • (C) Investment Promotion Bureau
  • (D) Rajasthan Small Industry Corporation Limited (RAJSICO)
Answer- (B) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

52. Which of the following has been formed in place of Chief Minister’s Rajasthan Economic Transformation Advisory Council (CMRETAC) ?

  • (A) Rajasthan Skill and Livelihoods Development Corporation (RSLDC)
  • (B) Rajasthan Institute for Transformation and Innovation (RITI)
  • (C) Rajasthan Centre of Advanced Technology (R-CAT)
  • (D) Rajasthan Grameen Aajeevika Vikas Parishad (RAJEEVIKA)
Answer- (B) Rajasthan Institute for Transformation and Innovation (RITI)

53. Which of the following park/zone has not been developed by RIICO in Rajasthan ?

  • (A) Medtech Medical Devices Park – Boranada, Jodhpur
  • (B) Integrated Resource Recovery Park – Jamwa Ramgarh, Jaipur
  • (C) Sports Goods and Toys Zone – Khushkheda, Bhiwadi
  • (D) Agro Food Park – Udaipur
Answer- (D) Agro Food Park – Udaipur

54. Rajasthan Government announced M-Sand Policy in the year 2024. This will remain in force-

  • (A) until 31 March, 2029 or till a new policy is announced
  • (B) until 31 March, 2030 or till a new policy is announced
  • (C) until 31 March, 2032 or till a new policy is announced
  • (D) until 30 June, 2029 or till a new policy is announced
Answer- (A) until 31 March, 2029 or till a new policy is announced

55. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the list :

List-I (New Industrial areas developed by RIICO in the year 2023-24)List-II (Place)
(I) Nadol(a) Udaipur
(II) Dharmpura(b) Jhalawar
(III) Umriya(c Barmer
(IV) Maal Ki toos(d) Pali

Codes :

  • (A) I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-a
  • (B) I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a
  • (C) I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c
  • (D) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b
Answer- (B) I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a

56. Which of the following statements are correct about PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana ?

(I) To install Solar plants on one crore house to provide upto 300 unit free electricity every month.

(II) Provision of 30 percent subsidy for setting up rooftop solar plants.

(III) 100 percent online system for registration, application, approval & grant.

(IV) Provision of loan at bank interest 4 percent to each applicant.

  • (A) I & IV
  • (B) I, II & III
  • (C) I & III
  • (D) I, III & IV
Answer- (C) I & III

57. Who among the following are eligible for Aastha Scheme in Rajasthan ?

  • (A) Persons with specially abled category.
  • (B) Specially abled category persons with more than 40 percent disability.
  • (C) BPL card holders.
  • (D) Families in which 2 or more people are specially abled category with more than 40 percent disability.
Answer- (D) Families in which 2 or more people are specially abled category with more than 40 percent disability.

58. Mukhyamantri Svanidhi Yojana of Rajasthan aims to

  • (A) empower BPL families
  • (B) empower SC/ST families
  • (C) empower street vendors
  • (D) empower pregnant and lactating women
Answer- (C) empower street vendors

59. In cataract the natural lens becomes cloudy because of change in which of the following ?

  • (A) Protein
  • (B) Carbohydrate
  • (C) Fat
  • (D) Tear glands
Answer- (A) Protein

60. Which of the following are units of the pressure ?

(I) bar, (II) Pa, (III) torr, (IV) atm

  • (A) Only II and IV
  • (B) Only II, III and IV
  • (C) Only I, II and IV
  • (D) All I, II, III and IV
Answer- (D) All I, II, III and IV

61. The main objective of “Rajasthan Urban Sector Development Programme (Phase-III)” is :

  • (A) to improve health services in urban areas.
  • (B) to improve school education in urban areas.
  • (C) to improve service delivery in water supply, sewerage and sanitation.
  • (D) to construct new roads.
Answer- (C) to improve service delivery in water supply, sewerage and sanitation.

62. Among the following layers, identify the one which is used for wireless connection in IoT devices :

  • (A) Application Layer
  • (B) Perception Layer
  • (C) Natwork Layer
  • (D) Transport Layer
Answer- (C) Natwork Layer

63. What is the name of the man-portable air defence system developed by ‘DRDO’ to neutralize aerial threats ?

  • (A) Akash-NG
  • (B) QRSAM
  • (C) VL-SRSAM
  • (D) VSHORADS
Answer- (D) VSHORADS

64. Which of the following statement is incorrect for Active Electronically Scanned Array Radar (AESA) ?

  • (A) It is not capable of tracking multiple targets.
  • (B) The radar features include wide band RF front end.
  • (C) It is solid-state active phased array fire control radar.
  • (D) It can be adapted for various types of fighter class of aircraft.
Answer- (A) It is not capable of tracking multiple targets.

65. The fourth generation biofuels are obtained from genetically modified :

  • (A) Archaebacteria
  • (B) Starch yielding crops
  • (C) Ligno-cellulose yielding crops
  • (D) Algae
Answer- (D) Algae

66. Regarding Artificial Intelligence (AI), identify the correct statements using the codes given below :

(I) Machine learning is a subset of AI.

(II) Supervised learning involves training a computer system without labelled input data.

(III) Machines learn through trial and error, receiving rewards during reinforcement learning.

Codes :

  • (A) Only I and II
  • (B) Only I and III
  • (C) Only II and III
  • (D) I, II and III all statements are correct.
Answer- (B) Only I and III

67. Kwashiorkor, a form of malnutrition, is caused by deficiency of which of the following ?

  • (A) Selenium
  • (B) Protein
  • (C) Carbohydrates
  • (D) Chromium
Answer- (B) Protein

68. Which of the following artificial sweeteners have the highest sweetness value in comparison to sucrose ?

  • (A) Aspartame
  • (B) Alitame
  • (C) Sucrolose
  • (D) Saccharin
Answer- (B) Alitame

69. Which of the following is a micro-mineral found in human body fluids/ tissues ?

  • (A) Phosphorus
  • (B) Sulphur
  • (C) Iodine
  • (D) Magnesium
Answer- (C) Iodine

70. Select the incorrect set of “the typical Vector – Disease caused – Type of Pathogen”.

  • (A) Aedes – Chikungunya – Bacteria
  • (B) Culex – Lymphatic Filariasis – Parasite
  • (C) Anopheles – Malaria – Parasite
  • (D) Aedes – Dengue – Virus
Answer- (A) Aedes – Chikungunya – Bacteria

71. According to Central Pollution Control Board, the Air Quality category for IND-AQI range of 101-200 is

  • (A) Good
  • (B) Satisfactory
  • (C) Moderate
  • (D) Poor
Answer- (C) Moderate

72. Select the incorrect statement from the following :

  • (A) El Nino and La Nina are a kind of storm.
  • (B) During El Nino, there are fewer phytoplanktons off the coast.
  • (C) During La Nino trade winds are stronger than usual.
  • (D) El Nino & La Nino are the climate patterns.
Answer- (A) El Nino and La Nina are a kind of storm.

73. India’s first Nano-cellulose plant developed by ICAR – CIRCOT Mumbai is related to

  • (A) Cotton
  • (B) Jute
  • (C) Bamboo
  • (D) Rice
Answer- (A) Cotton

74. Red List of IUCN is known as

  • (A) Mirror of Life
  • (B) Life Thermometer
  • (C) Hydrometer of Earth
  • (D) Barometer of Life
Answer- (D) Barometer of Life

75. Select the incorrect statement regarding the Rajasthan Forestry and Biodiversity Project (Phase-2).

  • (A) It is assisted by Japanese International Cooperation Agency (JICA).
  • (B) It covers 18 districts and 8 wild-life sanctuaries.
  • (C) Abheda and Machia Biological Parks have been developed under the project.
  • (D) Water Conservation has also been incorporated in the project.
Answer- (B) It covers 18 districts and 8 wild-life sanctuaries.

76. Match Column-I (Location of the Center of Excellence) with Column-II (the horticultural crop) and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Column-IColumn-II
(I) Bassi(a) Mango
(II) Sagra Bhojka(b) Custard-apple
(III) Devrawas(c) Pomegranate
(IV) Khemri(d) Guava
(e) Date-palm

Codes :

  • (A) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-e
  • (B) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
  • (C) I-c, II-e, III-d, IV-a
  • (D) I-d, II-c, III-e, IV-a
Answer- (C) I-c, II-e, III-d, IV-a

77. Which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) under 17 global goals given by United Nations specifically focuses on “Life on Land”, aiming to protect, restore and promote sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems ?

  • (A) SDG 13
  • (B) SDG 14
  • (C) SDG 15
  • (D) SDG 16
Answer- (C) SDG 15

78. “Ganga”, India’s first cloned cow born in March 2023 belongs to which breed ?

  • (A) Sahiwal
  • (B) Gir
  • (C) Tharparkar
  • (D) Nagauri
Answer- (B) Gir

79. In the question given below, statement and two assumptions (I) and (II) are given. Choose the correct option from the following :

Statement : In order to replenish the nutrients in the soil, it is important to grow different types of crops in every alternate season.

Assumptions :

(I) A crop can never be grown for the second time in the same field.

(II) If a different crop is grown in the successive season, no additional nutrients such as fertilizers are required to be added to the soil at all.

  • (A) Only assumption I is implicit.
  • (B) Only assumption II is implicit.
  • (C) Both assumptions I and II are implicit.
  • (D) Neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit.
Answer- (D) Neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit.

80. Which of the following village of Rajasthan is transforming itself to a zero-waste model with the help of Green Technology intervention ?

  • (A) Menar
  • (B) Devmali
  • (C) Naurangabad
  • (D) Aandhi
Answer- (D) Aandhi

81. In the question given below, three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true. Read the conclusions and given the answer.

Statements : Some symbols are figures.

All symbols are graphics.

No graphic is a picture.

Conclusions :

(I) Some graphics are figures.

(II) Some symbols are pictures.

  • (A) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows.
  • (B) Both Conclusion I and II follow.
  • (C) Only Conclusion I follows.
  • (D) Only Conclusion II follows.
Answer- (C) Only Conclusion I follows.

82. A statement is followed by two arguments I and II. Choose which of the argument(s) is/are strong.

Statement : Should every house use solar energy in order to reduce the need of electricity in Rajasthan ?

Arguments :

(I) Yes, it will conserve our natural resources and it will promote environmental compatibility.

(II) No, solar panels are costly and all the house, owners cannot afford it without subsidy.

  • (A) Only argument I is strong.
  • (B) Only argument II is strong.
  • (C) Both of the arguments are strong.
  • (D) Neither argument I nor argument II is strong.
Answer- (A) Only argument I is strong.

83. Eight equidistant points lie on a circle. Using these points as vertices, right angled triangles are drawn such that one side of each triangle is diameter of the circle. The number of such possible right angled triangles is :

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 24
Answer- (D) 24

84. Next term in the following sequence is :

2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ?

  • (A) 210
  • (B) 252
  • (C) 258
  • (D) 270
Answer- (B) 252

85. In a coding system, ‘PROJECT’ is written as ‘CEOPRT’ and ‘PLANE’ is written as ‘ELNP’. Then, in the same coding system the ‘ORGANISED’ will be written as :

  • (A) ADEGIOSR
  • (B) ADEGIROS
  • (C) ADEGOIRS
  • (D) ADEGIORS
Answer- (D) ADEGIORS

86. In the question given below, a statement is followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. Choose the correct option from the following :

Statement : There has been less voting in this Lok Sabha election as compared to previous Lok Sabha election.

Course of action :

(I) The election commission should announce re-election for Lok Sabha.

(II) Election commission should cancel the voting rights of the people who did not vote in this Lok Sabha election.

  • (A) Only I follows.
  • (B) Only II follows.
  • (C) Neither I nor II follows.
  • (D) Both I and II follow.
Answer- (C) Neither I nor II follows.

87. Mr. X starts walking towards south from point A. After walking 20 m., he reaches at point B. Now he turns left and walks 20 m and reaches at point C. Now he turns 45° anticlockwise, walks a distance \sqrt{3} m and reaches at the point D. What is the shortest distance between point A and point D ?

  • (A) 20\sqrt{3} m
  • (B) 40 m
  • (C) 20\sqrt{5} m
  • (D) 40 \sqrt{3} m
Answer- (C) 20\sqrt{5} m

88. A Venn diagram is drawn followed by the four choices. Select the correct choice which represents the given diagram.

  • (A) Teacher, Mother, Doctor
  • (B) Universe, Planets, Stars
  • (C) Income Tax, Sales Tax, Service Tax
  • (D) Library, Books, Furniture
Answer- (A) Teacher, Mother, Doctor

89. Images of consonants of the English alphabet (capitals) are observed in a mirror. What is the number of image which do not look like their original shapes ?

  • (A) 13
  • (B) 14
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 16
Answer- (B) 14

90. A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family. B is married to C. F is the mother of E and D is the daughter of F. A’s daughter is E and C’s son is A. There are two married couples in the family. Which of the following is correct ?

  • (A) B is grandfather of E.
  • (B) C is mother of A.
  • (C) C is grandmother of D.
  • (D) E is granddaughter of C.
Answer- (D) E is granddaughter of C.

91. A housewife has 1000 ml of mixture that contains milk and water in the ratio of 3 : 1. She adds 250 ml of mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 3 : 2 in it. Then she uses 250 ml of the combined mixture to make curd. How much of pure milk is left in the mixture remained ?

  • (A) 1000 ml
  • (B) 912 ml
  • (C) 750 ml
  • (D) 720 ml
Answer- (D) 720 ml

92. A reduction of 21% in the price of rice enables a person to buy 10.5 kg more for ₹ 1,000. What is the reduced price of rice per kg ?

  • (A) ₹ 20
  • (B) ₹ 30
  • (C) ₹ 40
  • (D) ₹ 15
Answer- (A) ₹ 20

93. The simple interest on a sum of ₹ 8,000 at a certain rate percent per annum for 3 years is ₹ 3,600. If the interest is compounded 8-monthly on the same sum at the same interest rate, then total compound interest after 2 years will be

  • (A) ₹ 10,248
  • (B) ₹ 10,648
  • (C) ₹ 2,248
  • (D) ₹ 2,648
Answer- (D) ₹ 2,648

94. The sides of a triangle are 5, 12 and 13 units. A rectangle is constructed, which is equal in area to the triangle. It has a width of 10 units, then the perimeter of this rectangle is :

  • (A) 30 units
  • (B) 26 units
  • (C) 13 units
  • (D) 40 units
Answer- (B) 26 units

95. How many triangles are there in the following figure ?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 14
  • (C) 16
  • (D) 18
Answer- (C) 16

96. The mean of 100 observations was calculated as 49. It was later discovered that three observations taken as 40, 20, 50 were actually 60, 70, 80 respectively. The correct mean is

  • (A) 48
  • (B) 49.33
  • (C) 50
  • (D) 49.5
Answer- (C) 50

97. Ten different letters of alphabets are given. Words with five letters are formed from these given, letters. Then, the number of words which have atleast one repeated letter is :

  • (A) 69760
  • (B) 30240
  • (C) 99748
  • (D) 99784
Answer- (A) 69760

98. The probability of getting the sum as a prime number, when two dice are thrown together, is :

  • (A) \frac{1}{2}
  • (B) \frac{1}{3}
  • (C) \frac{5}{12}
  • (D) \frac{7}{12}
Answer- (C) \frac{5}{12}

99. Recently which app is launched by Jaipur Municipal Corporation, Heritage for citizens to report civic issues and government to analyze, track, manage & solve ?

  • (A) Jaipur 300
  • (B) Jaipur 301
  • (C) Jaipur 311
  • (D) Jaipur 315
Answer- (C) Jaipur 311

100. The pie-chart provided below gives the distribution of land areas used for various food crops :

Choose the correct option from the following which uses more then 50% of the total area.

  • (A) Wheat, Barley and Sorghum
  • (B) Rice, Wheat and Sorghum
  • (C) Bajra, Maize and Rice
  • (D) Bajra, Maize and Rice
Answer- (B) Rice, Wheat and Sorghum

101. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly by-election- 2024 ?

  • (A) Minimum turnout (in percent) in by-election took place in Dausa.
  • (B) Out of 7 in 3 assembly constituencies, the voting percentage of women was more than that of men.
  • (C) 3127 voters voted through home voting.
  • (D) Maximum ballot papers for service employed voters were issued in Khinvsar assembly constituency.
Answer- (D) Maximum ballot papers for service employed voters were issued in Khinvsar assembly constituency.

102. Choose the correct statement with regards to Guru Ghasidas – Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve.

  • (A) It is situated in Madhya Pradesh.
  • (B) It is notified as 54th Tiger Reserve of India in November 2024.
  • (C) It is spread over 1829 sq. kms.
  • (D) It is the third largest tiger reserve in the country.
Answer- (D) It is the third largest tiger reserve in the country.

103. Which of the following Institution has been engaged by the Competition Commission of India in 2024, to conduct a market study on Artificial Intelligence and Competition ?

  • (A) Indian School of Business
  • (B) Management Development Institute Society
  • (C) Institute of Rural Management, Anand
  • (D) IIM, Indore
Answer- (B) Management Development Institute Society

104. The ‘Rajasthan MSME Policy – 2024’ will remain in force until which of the following date ?

  • (A) 31 March, 2028
  • (B) 31 March, 2030
  • (C) 31 March, 2029
  • (D) 31 March, 2031
Answer- (C) 31 March, 2029

105. Recently Yamandu Orsi has been elected as the President of which country ?

  • (A) Paraguay
  • (B) Uruguay
  • (C) Venezuela
  • (D) Guyana
Answer- (B) Uruguay

106. The Submarine Cable Resilience Summit in February, 2025 will be held at :

  • (A) Switzerland
  • (B) Nigeria
  • (C) France
  • (D) Armenia
Answer- (B) Nigeria

107. Name the writer from South Korea who has won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2024 ?

  • (A) Nihon Hidankyo
  • (B) David Baker
  • (C) Annie Ernauxe
  • (D) Han Kang
Answer- (D) Han Kang

108. Match the Column I and II regarding National awards for the empowerment of persons with disabilities 2024 :

Column-I (Sarvshreshth Divyangjan)Column-II (Field of out-standing work)
(I) Ananya Bijesh(a) Art and Culture
(II) Prateek Khandelwal(b) Music
(III) Priyanka Deepak Dabade(c) Accessibility

Codes :

  • (A) I-a, II-b, III-c
  • (B) I-c, II-b, III-a
  • (C) I-c, II-a, III-b
  • (D) I-b, II-c, III-a
Answer- (D) I-b, II-c, III-a

109. Recently the Government of India has approved inclusion of some of the languages in the list of classical languages. Now, how many languages in total are having the status of classical languages ?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 11
Answer- (D) 11

110. The I Edition of Joint Table Top Exercise (CINBAX) between the Indian Army and the Cambodian Army was held at :

  • (A) Mumbai
  • (B) Pune
  • (C) Jodhpur
  • (D) Bhubaneswar
Answer- (B) Pune

111. Where was the India- Norway business round table held on 8th December, 2024 ?

  • (A) Jaipur
  • (B) New Delhi
  • (C) Chennai
  • (D) Mumbai
Answer- (D) Mumbai

112. Which organization has recently launched an upgraded Mobile App “Suvidha 2.0” ?

  • (A) Election Commission of India
  • (B) Supreme Court of India
  • (C) Central Bureau of Investigation
  • (D) Ministry of Aayush
Answer- (A) Election Commission of India

113. Consider the following statements about recently inaugurated Asia’s largest and word’s highest imaging Cherenkov Observatory, at Hanle, Ladakh :

(I) It was inaugurated by Ajit Kumar, Mohanty, Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission.

(II) It is located at an altitude of 5100 metres.

(III) The telescope is built by Bhabha Atomic Research Centre with the support of Electronic Corporation of India and other industry partners.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Only I and II are correct.
  • (B) I, II and III are correct.
  • (C) Only I and III are correct.
  • (D) Only II and III are correct.
Answer- (C) Only I and III are correct.

114. Who among the following from India, co-chaired with Mr. Atsushi Mimura, at the 2nd India- Japan Finance Dialogue held at Tokyo in September, 2024 ?

  • (A) Tuhinkanta Pandey
  • (B) Dammu Ravi
  • (C) Ajay Seth
  • (D) Vikram Misri
Answer- (C) Ajay Seth

115. Khelo India Youth Games 2025 will be hosted by which of the following state ?

  • (A) Rajasthan
  • (B) Bihar
  • (C) Tamil Nadu
  • (D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer- (B) Bihar

116. How many medals did India win at the 2024 ISSF (International Shooting Sport Federation) World Cup in shooting ?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5
Answer- (C) 4

117. Consider the following statements regarding to 38th National Games 2025 and choose the correct option :

Statement (I) : It will be hosted by Uttarakhand.

Statement (II) : The National Games will feature 28 sporting disciplines and 4 demonstration events.

  • (A) Both Statements I and II are correct.
  • (B) Only Statement I is correct.
  • (C) Only Statement II is correct.
  • (D) Both Statements I and II are incorrect.
Answer- (B) Only Statement I is correct.

118. How many gold and bronze medals has Rajasthan won in 5th National Para Shooting Championship held at Pune in November 2024 ?

  • (A) 16 gold and 11 bronze
  • (B) 11 gold and 7 bronze
  • (C) 16 gold and 7 bronze
  • (D) 11 gold and 16 bronze
Answer- (C) 16 gold and 7 bronze

119. ‘Divith Reddy Adulla’ winner of World Cadet Under-8 Championship 2024 is related to which game ?

  • (A) Swimming
  • (B) Chess
  • (C) Table Tennis
  • (D) Gymnastics
Answer- (B) Chess

120. Which of the following archaeological sites was identified by archaeologist T. H. Handley as a Buddhist town ?

  • (A) Bhandarej
  • (B) Budha Pushkar
  • (C) Bairath
  • (D) Naliasar
Answer- (D) Naliasar

121. Consider the following statements about Rao Chunda of Marwar and choose the correct option from below :

(I) Rao Chunda obtained Mandore in dowry.

(II) Rao Ranmal ascended the throne immediately after Rao Chunda’s death.

  • (A) Only I is true.
  • (B) Only II is true.
  • (C) I and II both are true.
  • (D) I and II both are false
Answer- (A) Only I is true.

122. According to “Rao-Jetsi-Ro-Chhanda”, who among the following was defeated by Rao Jaitsi, the ruler of Bikaner ?

  • (A) Humayun
  • (B) Kamran
  • (C) Shershah
  • (D) Akbar
Answer- (B) Kamran

123. Which of the following was were associated in the excavation of Ojiyana ?

(I) R.C. Agrawal

(II) B.R. Meena

(III) Alok Tripathi

Codes :

  • (A) Only I
  • (B) Only III
  • (C) I and II
  • (D) II and III
Answer- (D) II and III

124. Consider the following statements related to Bijolia Peasant Movement :

(I) Vijay Singh Pathik had gone to Wardha to meet Gandhiji to give information regarding the Bijolia Peasant Movement.

(II) Prayag’s Abhyudaya and Calcutta’s Bharat Mitra newspaper regularly published news related to the Bijolia Peasant Movement.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

  • (A) Only A is correct.
  • (B) Only B is correct.
  • (C) Both A and B are correct.
  • (D) Neither A nor B is correct.
Answer- (B) Only B is correct.

125. The S.A. Sudhalkar report of 1945 is associated with which of the following Princely State ?

  • (A) Jodhpur
  • (B) Bikaner
  • (C) Udaipur
  • (D) Jaipur
Answer- (A) Jodhpur

126. Which of the following statements is not true regarding Walterkrit Rajput Hitkarini Sabha ?

  • (A) It was established in the year 1888, by the efforts of colonel C.K.M. Walter.
  • (B) It was aimed to make reforms for Rajputs and Dalits of Rajasthan.
  • (C) Its first meeting was organized Ajmer.
  • (D) The Sabha made social regulations to achieve its aims.
Answer- (B) It was aimed to make reforms for Rajputs and Dalits of Rajasthan.

127. The famous temple built by Mathandev at Rajorgarh was dedicated to which of the following deities ?

  • (A) Shiva
  • (B) Vishnu
  • (C) Surya
  • (D) Mahishasur Mardini
Answer- (A) Shiva

128. Consider the following statements about the folk instrument ‘Chautara’ and choose the correct option from below :

(I) It is a four stringed instrument.

(II) It is generally used in singing bhajans of Ramdev ji.

  • (A) Only I is true.
  • (B) Only II is true.
  • (C) A and B both are true.
  • (D) A and B both are false.
Answer- (C) A and B both are true.

129. Which of the following options is not rightly matched ?

  • (A) Prithvi Raj Raso – Chandarbardai
  • (B) Bisaldev Raso – Narpati
  • (C) Khuman Raso – Karnidan
  • (D) Shatrusal Raso – Dungarsingh
Answer- (C) Khuman Raso – Karnidan

130. Match List-I with List-II regarding famous painting styles and their painters of Rajasthan and select the correct option :

List-IList-II
(I) Kishangarh(a) Sahibdeen
(II) Bikaner(b) Nihalchand
(III) Mewar(c) Ali Raza
(IV) Marwar(d) Shivdas

Codes :

  • (A) I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c
  • (B) I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d
  • (C) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
  • (D) I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-d
Answer- (B) I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d

131. Consider the following statements about Saint Laldas and choose the correct option from below :

(I) Saint Laldas remained unmarried throughout his life.

(II) After the death of Saint Laldas, a temple was built at his Samadhi place.

  • (A) Only I is true.
  • (B) Only II is true.
  • (C) I and II both are true.
  • (D) I and II both are false.
Answer- (D) I and II both are false.

132. Which of the following colours is ‘Kasumal’, which is used in the costumes of Rajasthan ?

  • (A) Red
  • (B) Yellow
  • (C) Pink
  • (D) Saffron
Answer- (A) Red

133. Consider the following statements about Matsya Union’s Prime Minister Shobaram and choose the correct option from below :

(I) He left his legal profession during the Non-Cooperation Movement.

(II) He was the member of the Cabinet of Heeralal Shastri.

  • (A) Only I is true.
  • (B) Only II is true.
  • (C) I and II both are true.
  • (D) I and II both are false.
Answer- (B) Only II is true.

134. For which of the following the words Aadi (आड़ी), Hiyali (हीयाली) are popular in Rajasthani language ?

  • (A) Idioms
  • (B) Proverb
  • (C) Phad
  • (D) Riddles
Answer- (D) Riddles

135. Which of the following titles was adopted by the Kadphises Second of Kushan dynasty ?

  • (A) Sakari
  • (B) Sarvalokeshwar
  • (C) Mahakshatrap
  • (D) Singh Chandra
Answer- (B) Sarvalokeshwar

136. Consider the following statements about Stupas and choose the correct option from below :

(I) The word ‘Stupa’ is an architectural term and means something which is raised up by accumulation.

(II) The custom of erecting ‘Stupas’ as a form of memorial to the dead was pre-Buddhist.

  • (A) Only I is true.
  • (B) Only II is true.
  • (C) I and II both are true.
  • (D) I and II both are false.
Answer- (C) I and II both are true.

137. Which of the following Buddhist texts were written in Sanskrit language ? Choose the correct option from below :

(I) Divyavadan, (II) Deepvansha, (III) Mahavansha, (IV) Aryamanjushree Moolkalp

  • (A) I, II
  • (B) II, III
  • (C) I, IV
  • (D) I, III
Answer- (C) I, IV

138. Consider the following statements related to Aajivaka Sect :

(I) Belief in Determinism

(II) The order of reincarnation can be changed.

(III) Belief in Austerity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Codes :

  • (A) Only I is correct.
  • (B) Only II is correct.
  • (C) I and II are correct.
  • (D) I and III are correct.
Answer- (D) I and III are correct.

139. Which of the following monuments were built by Emperor Shershah ?

(I) Sasaram Tomb

(II) Kila-E-Kuhn Mosque

(III) Tomb of Sikandara

(IV) Jama Masjid

  • (A) I, II
  • (B) I, III
  • (C) I, IV
  • (D) II, IV
Answer- (A) I, II

140. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Bhakti Movement ?

  • (A) Vallabhacharya established Pushtimarga.
  • (B) Nimbarka propounded the Philosophy of Dvaitadvait.
  • (C) Madhvacharya propounded Nirguna Bhakti Siddhant instead of Saguna Bhakti.
  • (D) Ramananda advocated Rama Bhakti.
Answer- (C) Madhvacharya propounded Nirguna Bhakti Siddhant instead of Saguna Bhakti.

141. Who painted the famous image of Bharat Mata to visually associate the identity of India, as a Nation ?

  • (A) Gagnendranath
  • (B) Abnindranath
  • (C) Bankim Chandra
  • (D) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer- (B) Abnindranath

142. In which language did the poet Mallanarya write the texts named “Bhava Chinta Ratna” and “Veerasaivamrita” in the court of Krishandev Ray ?

  • (A) Sanskrit
  • (B) Tamil
  • (C) Telugu
  • (D) Kannada
Answer- (D) Kannada

143. Who among the following was appointed as the chairman of Secondary Education Commission by Government of India in 1952 ?

  • (A) S. Radhakrishnan
  • (B) D.S. Kothari
  • (C) P.C. Mahalanobis
  • (D) Laxman Swami Mudaliar
Answer- (D) Laxman Swami Mudaliar

144. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :

List-I (Desert)List-II (Location)
(I) Gobi(a) Southern Africa
(II) Patagonia(b) Asia
(III) Victoria(c) South America
(IV) Kalahari(d) Australia

Codes :

  • (A) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
  • (B) I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-a
  • (C) I-b, I-a, III-c, IV-d
  • (D) I-c, I-d, III-a, IV-b
Answer- (A) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a

145. Which is not an area of Mediterranean type of Agriculture ?

  • (A) California
  • (B) Central Chile
  • (C) Northern Australia
  • (D) Southern part of South Africa
Answer- (C) Northern Australia

146. Read the following statements related to the liberal phase of Indian National Movement (1885-1905 A.D.) :

(I) Supported the rich democratic and scientific culture of modern Europe.

(II) Strongly criticized the Economic aspect of British imperialism.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

  • (A) Only I is true.
  • (B) Only II is true.
  • (C) Both I and II are true.
  • (D) Neither I nor II is true.
Answer- (C) Both I and II are true.

147. What is the correct order of the following mountain ranges from North to South ?

(I) Ladakh, (II) Shiwalik, (III) Karakoram, (IV) Zaskar

Codes :

  • (A) I, III, II, IV
  • (B) IV, III, I, II
  • (C) III, I, IV, II
  • (D) III, II, I, IV
Answer- (C) III, I, IV, II

148. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

  • (A) The variability of rainfall at Chennai is more than that of Mumbai.
  • (B) The retreating monsoon causes some rains in the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu.
  • (C) The western disturbances originate from the Mediterranean Sea.
  • (D) The Monsoon Expedition (Monex) was organized under the joint auspices of the United States of America (U.S.A.) and India.
Answer- (D) The Monsoon Expedition (Monex) was organized under the joint auspices of the United States of America (U.S.A.) and India.

149. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

List-I (Tributary)List-II (River)
(I) Rapti(a) Brahmaputra
(II) Tista(b) Narmada
(III) Hiran(c) Godavari
(IV) Purna(d) Ghaghra

Codes :

  • (A) I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-a
  • (B) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
  • (C) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b
  • (D) I-d, II-a, III-b, IV-c
Answer- (D) I-d, II-a, III-b, IV-c

150. In which forest zone of the world highest deforestation has been recorded ?

  • (A) Coniferous
  • (B) Tropical
  • (C) Savana Deciduous
  • (D) Tidal
Answer- (B) Tropical

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