Rajasthan Gram Sevak & Hostal Supritendent Grade-II Solved Question Paper 2016

General Information about Rajasthan Gram Sevak & Panchayat Secretary or Hostal Supritendent Grade II Exam 2016

Exam Board	Rajasthan Staff Selection Board (RSSB)
Exam Name	Gram Sevak & Hostal Supritendent Grade II
Exam Date	18-12-2016
Answer Key issue date	2017
Final Answer key issue date	2017
Exam Mode	Offline
Question paper language	Hindi & English
Question paper type	Objective
Total Question	120
Maximum Marks	100
Negative Marking	1/3
Time	2 Hours

This question paper includes questions related to the following subjects. :-

1. Current Affairs (State, national and international level)
2. Geography and Natural Resources (World, India & Rajasthan)
3. Agriculture and Economic Development with Special Reference to India and Rajasthan
4. History and Culture (India & Rajasthan)
5. General mental ability.
6. Reasoning power and analytical ability.
7. English, Hindi and Mathematics (10th class level).
8. Administrative structure in Rajasthan at the state, district, tehsil and panchayat level.
9. Basic knowledge of computer.

Question 1. Who discharge the duties of Governor in his absence?

• (A) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha
• (B) Chief Justice of High Court
• (C) Chief Minister of a State
• (D) None of the above

Question 2. Consider the following two statements?

Assertion (A) : State Governor holds his office during the pleasure of the President.

Reason (R) : Governor is appointed by the Prime Minister.

In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?

• (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
• (B) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A.
• (C) A is true but R is false.
• (D) A is false but R is true.

Question 3. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

• (A) Article : 154 – Executive power of State
• (B) Article : 155 – Appointment of Governor
• (C) Article : 156 – Qualifications for the appointment as Governor
• (D) Article : 163 – Council of Ministers of State

Question 4. Consider the following about the State High Court :

(I) Article 213 provides that there shall be a High Court for each State.

(II) Judges of High Court are appointed by President.

(III) Under Article 226, it has power to issue certain writs.

(IV) As per the provision of the Constitution of India common Hight Court can be established for two or more States.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

• (A) I and II are correct
• (B) I, II and III are correct
• (C) II, III and IV are correct
• (D) I, III and IV are correct

Question 5. Council of Ministers of a State is accountable to :

• (A) State Legislative Assembly
• (B) Indian Parliament
• (C) Governor
• (D) President

Question 6. Arrange the following posts of a State secretariat in hierarchy (Higher to lower) order by using the code given below.

(I) Secretary

(II) Deputy Secretary

(III) Special Secretary

(IV) Assistant Secretary

• Code :
• (A) IV, III, II, I
• (B) I, III, II, IV
• (C) II, III, IV, I
• (D) III, II, I, IV

Question 7. Which of the following is not a function of District Collector?

• (A) Collection of revenue
• (B) Maintenance of Law and Order
• (C) Collection of Income Tax
• (D) Maintenance of Land record

Question 8. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was on :

• (A) Democratic Decentralization
• (B) Panchayati Raj Institutions
• (C) Rural Development
• (D) Community Development Programmes

Question 9. Which of the following articles of the Constitution was inserted through the 73^rd amendment regarding Panchayats?

• (A) 243 to 243-T
• (B) 244 to 244-P
• (C) 243 to 243-O
• (D) 243 to 243-ZA

Question 10. Panchayati Raj is a system of :

• (A) Local government
• (B) Local self government
• (C) Local administration
• (D) Rural local self government

Question 11. Consider the following about State Legislative Assembly :

(I) It’s term is Five Year

(II) It is chaired by Chief Minister

(III) It is directly elected by the people

(IV) Governor is empowered to dissolve it

• Code :
• (A) I, II and IV are correct
• (B) II, III and IV are correct
• (C) I, III and IV are correct
• (D) I, II and III are correct

Question 12. In which of the following games, India has won World Cup in October 2016?

• (A) Kabbadi
• (B) Football
• (C) Hockey
• (D) Lawn Tennis

Question 13. In US President’s election 2016 Donald Trump was a candidate of :

• (A) Democratic Party
• (B) Republican Party
• (C) Constitution Party
• (D) Green Party

Question 14. When did NITI (National Institute for Transformation of India) Aayog came into existence?

• (A) 1^st January, 2014
• (B) 1^st November, 2014
• (C) 1^st January, 2015
• (D) 1^st January, 2016

Question 15. Goods and Service Tax (GST) Council of India is headed by :

• (A) Prime Minister
• (B) Finance Minister
• (C) Finance Secretary
• (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below-

List-I (Mountain Types)	List-II (Region)
(a) Young folded	(I) South-Eastern coast of North America
(b) Old folded	(II) Western coast of North America
(c) Volcanic	(III) South-Western coast of North America
(d) Fault-block	(IV) Circum-Pacific belt

• Codes :
• (A) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
• (B) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
• (C) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
• (D) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I

Question 17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below-

List-I (Mountain Peaks)	List-II (Continents)
(a) Kilimanjaro	(I) South America
(b) Vinson Massif	(II) Australia
(c) Mount Kosciusko	(III) Antarctica
(d) Aconcagua	(IV) Africa

• Codes :
• (A) a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III
• (B) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
• (C) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
• (D) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I

Question 18. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of World’s Oceans/Seas in descending order of area occupied?

• (A) Atlantic – Indian – Arctic – South China
• (B) Atlantic – South China – Arctic – Indian
• (C) Indian – Arctic – South China – Atlantic
• (D) Arctic – Atlantic – South China – Indian

Question 19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below-

List-I (Particulars)	List-II (Spots)
(a) World’s wettest spot	(I) Iqique
(b) World’s driest spot	(II) Mawsynram
(c) World’s northernmost town	(III) Ushuaia
(d) World’s southernmost town	(IV) Ny-Alesund

• Codes :
• (A) a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
• (B) a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
• (C) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
• (D) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV

Question 20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below-

List-I (Wetland Ecosites)	List-II (States)
(a) Bhoj	(I) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Chandratal	(II) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Schlur	(III) Tripura
(d) Rudrasagar	(IV) Jammu-Kashmir

• Codes :
• (A) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
• (B) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
• (C) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
• (D) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV

Question 21. Which one of the following would be the best strategy for ecology-friendly sustainable development in Indian agriculture?

• (A) Improved farm implements and machinery, use of potent insecticides to minimise post-harvest grain losses and monoculture cropping practices.
• (B) Mixed cropping and use of organic manures, nitrogen-fixing plants and pest-resistant crop varieties.
• (C) Wide use of high-yielding crop varieties, better and more frequency of aerial sprays of inorganic fertilisers and pesticides.
• (D) Expansion of cultivable land, increased use of super phosphate, urea and effective bioacids.

Question 22. Tropic of cancer and 80° East longitude divide India into four quadrants. In which quadrant are the maximum cotton growing areas located?

• (A) North-East
• (B) South-West
• (C) North-West
• (D) South-East

Question 23. What is the root cause of shifting tendency of Indian cotton textile industry from Mumbai toward Ahmedabad?

• (A) This industry has the advantage of early start in Ahmedabad.
• (B) Land in Ahmedabad is cheaper than Mumbai.
• (C) High quality cloths manufactured in Ahmedabad are in large demand in India and abroad as well.
• (D) Ahmedabad enjoys more import-export facilities than Mumbai.

Question 24. Which of the following statements regarding physical features of Rajasthan is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

(I) Hadauti plateau is bounded by Main Boundary Fault in North-West.

(II) 41.50 percent are of western sandy plain is sand dune free region.

(III) Structurally, physical features of Rajasthan form part of northern great plains and peninsular plateau of India.

(IV) Aravalli in the present time exist as residual mountains.

• Codes :
• (A) I, II and III
• (B) II, III and IV
• (C) I and III
• (D) Only III

Question 25. Which of the following statements regarding climatic conditions of Rajasthan is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

(I) Climatic conditions of Rajasthan exhibit extremity of temperature and rainfall.

(II) During the last ten years amount of rainfall has decreased in western desert part, while increased in Mewar.

(III) Sudden onset of South-East moisture laden winds over an intensely heated landmass is the root cause of scarce rain in Western Rajasthan.

(IV) Climatically major part of Rajasthan lies in sub-tropical zone.

• Codes :
• (A) I and II
• (B) II and IV
• (C) I, II and III
• (D) I, II and IV

Question 26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below-

List-I (Soil Types)	List-II (Climatic Regions)
(a) Aridisols	(I) Arid and semi-arid
(b) Inceptisols	(II) Semi-arid and humid
(c) Alfisols	(III) Sub-humid and humid
(d) Vertisols	(IV) Humid and super-humid

• Codes :
• (A) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
• (B) a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III
• (C) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
• (D) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV

Question 27. On the basis of legal status (31 March, 2011) examine the following statement regarding forests of Rajasthan and select the correct answer using the codes given below-

(I) Of the total forest area in Rajasthan reserved and protected forests respectively constitute 55.84 and 37.94 percent.

(II) Maximum reserved forests in the State are found in Udaipur and Chittorgarh districts.

(III) Maximum protected forest in the State are found in Baran and Karauli districts.

(IV) Maximum unclassified forest in the State are found in Bikaner and Ganganagar districts.

• Codes :
• (A) I, II and IV
• (B) I, II and III
• (C) II, III and IV
• (D) Only I

Question 28. Rajasthan desert is quite unlikely from other deserts situated in similar latitudes of the World. What is the logical perception about desertification process here?

• (A) It starts due to drought.
• (B) It starts and expands from deserts heartland.
• (C) It starts and expands from arid regions.
• (D) It starts and expands due to overgrazing, over ploughing, deforestation and improper management of soil and water.

Question 29. In which Agricultural Year during the last three decades more then 90 percent villages of Rajasthan were hit by unprecedented famine and drought?

• (A) 1987-88
• (B) 2000-01
• (C) 2002-03
• (D) 2009-10

Question 30. Examine the following statements regarding development of barren land in Rajasthan and select the correct answer using the codes given below-

(I) Currently (2013-14) barren land constitutes about 19 percent of total reported area for land use purpose in the State.

(II) Old fallow land has recorded about 18 percent decrease over the last 30 years in the State.

(III) Onus of development of barren land in the State lies with the National Wasteland Development Board.

(IV) Integrated Barren Land Development Project is being currently run in 10 districts of the state with the co-operation of Swedish International Development Agency (SIDA).

• Codes :
• (A) I and II
• (B) I and III
• (C) II and IV
• (D) I, II and IV

Question 31. In view of increasing number of dark and grey zones in Rajasthan Central Ground Water Authority of India has put total ban on exploitation of ground water in which of the administrative blocks of the State?

• (A) Bhinmal, Todabhim, Toda Raisingh
• (B) Behror, Bhinmal, Surajgarh, Dhond, Shri Madhopur
• (C) Surajgarh, Desuri, Deoli
• (D) Behror, Osian, Mahuwa

Question 32. Odd out the incorrect statement regarding livestock numbers in Rajasthan-

• (A) Rajasthan constitutes 11.27 percent of total livestock numbers of India (2012)
• (B) Livestock numbers of Rajasthan increased by 10.69 lac from 2007 to 2012.
• (C) Donkeys and mules recorded maximum increase in numbers from 2007 to 2012.
• (D) Camel recorded maximum decrease in numbers from 2007 to 2012.

Question 33. Which of the following changes occurred in cropping pattern of Rajasthan since First Plan Period till 2012-13 is/are correct?

(I) Area under cereals has increased from 42.5 to 56.0 percent.

(II) Area under pulses has declined from 21.0 to 13.5 percent.

(III) Area under oilseeds has increased from 6.2 to 20.5 percent.

(IV) Area under cotton, sugarcane, guar, fruits, vegetables, spices and fodder crops has increased from 16.8 to 23.5 percent.

Select the correct answer using the following codes-

• (A) I, II and III
• (B) I and III
• (C) Only I
• (D) II, III and IV

Question 34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below-

List-I (Lift Canal)	List-II (Beneficiary Districts)
(a) Jai Narain Vyas	(I) Bikaner, Nagaur
(b) Choudhary Kumbha Ram	(II) Jodhpur, Bikaner
(c) Panna Lal-Barupal	(III) Jodhpur, Jaisalmer
(d) Dr. Karni Singh	(IV) Hanumangarh, Churu

• Codes :
• (A) a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
• (B) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
• (C) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
• (D) a-II, b-IV, d-I, d-III

Question 35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below-

List-I (Minerals)	List-II (Mining Areas)
(a) Emerald	(I) Tikki, Garhbore
(b) Garnet	(II) Rajmahal, Bageshwar
(c) Manganese	(III) Leelawani, Kalakhuta
(d) Copper	(IV) Kolhan, Bhagoni

• Codes :
• (A) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
• (B) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
• (C) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
• (D) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I

Question 36. On the basis of industrial potentialities assessed by various Public Sector Financial organisation (RICO, RFC, RAJSICO etc.) which districts of Rajasthan have been included in category ”A?

• (A) Jodhpur, Pali, Ajmer, Alwar
• (B) Bikaner, Jodhpur, Bhilwara, Jaipur
• (C) Alwar, Tonk, Chittorgarh, Ajmer
• (D) Kota, Ajmer, Udaipur, Bharatpur

Question 37. Which of the following statements regarding population trends in Rajasthan is/are correct? Select the correct answer the codes given below-

(I) Decadal growth rate of the State population has declined 9.97 percent during 1991-2011.

(II) Population density of the State has increased more than six times during 1901-2011.

(III) Trend of sex ratio of the State has been even during 1901-2011.

(IV) Literacy rate of the State has increased more then eight times during 1951-2011.

• Codes :
• (A) II and IV
• (B) I and II
• (C) II and IV
• (D) I, II and IV

Question 38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below-

List-I (Percentage of Tribes in Total Population of Rajasthan, 2011)	List-II (Major Habitats)
(a) Less than 20 percent	(I) Baran, Bundi, Karauli
(b) 20 to 25 percent	(II) Chittorgarh, Rajsamand, Jhalawar
(c) 26 to 50 percent	(III) Udaipur, Sirohi, Dausa
(d) 51 to 80 percent	(IV) Banswara, Dungarpur, Pratapgarh

• Codes :
• (A) a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
• (B) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
• (C) a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III
• (D) a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III

Question 39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below-

List-I (Tribes of Rajasthan)	List-II (Major Habitats)
(a) Sahariya	(I) Dungarpur, Banswara
(b) Garasiya	(II) Udaipur, Sirohi
(c) Damore	(III) Baran, Kota
(d) Mina	(IV) Jaipur, Dausa

• Codes :
• (A) a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
• (B) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
• (C) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
• (D) a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV

Question 40. Which of the following development programmes are not directly related with improvement of tribal economy in Rajasthan?

(I) Modified Area Development Approach and Cluster Project

(II) Rajasthan Mission on Livelihood (RMOL)

(III) Mewat, Dang and Magra Area Development Programme

(IV) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojna (SGSY)

• Codes :
• (A) Only I
• (B) I and II
• (C) I, II and III
• (D) II, III and IV

Question 41. How many unemployed persons have been estimated in total 3 crore labour force of Rajasthan as per population census 2011?

• (A) 20 lakh
• (B) 30 lakh
• (C) 38 lakh
• (D) 33 lakh

Question 42. Which of the following facts about unemployment rates in Rajasthan is/are correct according to 68^th round 2011-12 of National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) usual status adjusted (UPSS) mode?

(I) 0.9 percent males of total labour force are unemployed in rural areas.

(II) 3.2 percent males of total labour force are unemployed in urban areas.

(III) 3.1 percent persons of total labour force are unemployed in whole State.

(IV) Unemployment rates are much higher in rural areas than urban areas.

• Codes :
• (A) Only IV
• (B) I and II
• (C) II and III
• (D) I, III and IV

Question 43. Which of the following development programmes in Rajasthan were amalgamated in Swarnjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojna (SGSY) since 01 April, 1999?

(I) Integrated Rural Development (IRDP) and Training to Rural Youth in Self Employment (TRYSEM)

(II) Development of Women and Children (DWCRA) and Industrial Tools Supply in Rural Areas (SITRA)

(III) Ganga Kalyan Yojna (GKY) and Million Wells Scheme (MWS)

(IV) Jawahar Rojgar Yojna (JRY)

• Codes :
• (A) Only I
• (B) I and IV
• (C) I, II and III
• (D) I, II and IV

Question 44. Approximately how many persons in total population of Rajasthan have been estimated as poor in 2011-12 according to C. Rangrajan Expert Group Report 2014?

• (A) 1.12 Crore
• (B) 1.51 Crore
• (C) 2.35 Crore
• (D) 90 Lakh

Question 45. Which of the conclusions obtained from poverty rations calculated for Rajasthan according to Suresh Tendulkar method is/are correct?

(I) Poverty ratio in rural areas of the State has increased by 10.3 percent between 2009-10 and 2011-12.

(II) Poverty ratio in urban areas of the State has declined by 9.2 percent between 2009-10 and 2011-12.

(III) Poverty ratios in the State have declined in both the years 2009-10 and 2011-12 compared to India.

(IV) Poverty ratio in 2011-12 was estimated 14.7 percent for Rajasthan and 21.9 percent for India.

• Codes :
• (A) I and III
• (B) I and IV
• (C) I, II and III
• (D) II, III and IV

Question 46. In which period ‘Amrawati Stupa’ was built?

• (A) Gupta’s
• (B) Mauraya’s
• (C) Satvahana’s
• (D) Vardhan’s

Question 47. Who discovered the ‘Bharhut Stupa’ in the year 1873 A.D.?

• (A) Marshal
• (B) Kanigam
• (C) K.S. Lal
• (D) B.K. Thapar

Question 48. Where is ‘Danchand Chopra’s Havelli’ Situated in Rajasthan?

• (A) Bikaner
• (B) Sujangarh
• (C) Khatdi
• (D) Kishangarh

Question 49. Who built the famous Fort of Mandu?

• (A) Hussain Shah
• (B) Bajbahadur
• (C) Mohammad Shah
• (D) Kumbha

Question 50. What is ‘Cheda Fhadna’ in Bhils?

• (A) Festival
• (B) Divorce
• (C) Marriage
• (D) Birth of Son

Question 51. In which of the following Maharaja’s Darbar ‘Gandharv Baisi’ was present in the form of 22 poets, 22 astrologers, 22 singers and 22 other subject specialist?

• (A) Maharaja Man Singh
• (B) Maharaja Jai Singh
• (C) Maharaja Bhagwat Singh
• (D) Maharaja Pratap Singh

Question 52. ‘Namadi and Rangdi’ are characteristic of which language?

• (A) Hadoti
• (B) Mewati
• (C) Malawi
• (D) Ahirwati

Question 53. Who established the ‘Alkhiya Sect’ (Sampradaya)?

• (A) Lal Giri
• (B) Bhola Nath
• (C) Charan Das
• (D) Sant Dasji

Question 54. During which Maharaja’s rule ‘Ramprakash Theatre’ was established in Jaipur?

• (A) Maharaja Ram Singh II
• (B) Maharaja Ishwari Singh
• (C) Maharaja Vijay Singh
• (D) Maharaja Man Singh

Question 55. ‘Bam dance’ is famous at which place?

• (A) Alwar-Bhartpur
• (B) Jaisalmer-Barmer
• (C) Jaipur-Ajmer
• (D) Udaipur-Sirohi

Question 56. To which form the ‘Sugan Chiri’ is considered as Lokmata

• (A) Sawangiya Mata
• (B) Naganchi Mata
• (C) Ayad Mata
• (D) Shitala Mata

Question 57. Who was the Guru of Balindji?

• (A) Dadu Dayalji
• (B) Ramcharanji
• (C) Sundardasji
• (D) Manglaramji

Question 58. Which Lok Devata is known by name of ‘Jaharpeer’?

• (A) Hadbuji
• (B) Ramdevji
• (C) Devnarayanji
• (D) Gogaji

Question 59. Who is considered as Lokdevi of Alwar region?

• (A) Sugali Mata
• (B) Sachiya Mata
• (C) Jilani Mata
• (D) Latiyala Mata.

Question 60. Molana Village is famous for which handicraft art?

• (A) Teracota
• (B) Meenakari
• (C) Bluepottery
• (D) Thevakala

Question 61. What is ‘Jannotan’ in Rajasthani Culture?

• (A) A Dinner given by the groom side
• (B) Measurement of Land
• (C) A type of Lokgeet
• (D) An Agricultural Tax

Question 62. In Bhil tribe who wears ‘Kachawo’?

• (A) Men
• (B) Women
• (C) Young Boy
• (D) Children

Question 63. What is ‘Aulondi’ in Rajasthan Culture?

• (A) A type of Marriage
• (B) A local game
• (C) A girl or woman accompanying the Bride-Groom
• (D) Rajasthani Lok Geet

Question 64. What for the ‘Chanduji ka Gadha and Bodigama Places’ are famous?

• (A) For manufacturing of Teer-Kaman
• (B) For Meenakari work
• (C) For Kundan Art
• (D) For Jajam Printing

Question 65. On which part of the body ‘Ballaya’ ornament is wore?

• (A) On Head
• (B) On Ears
• (C) On Nose
• (D) On Hands

Question 66. Six people, Parul, Rajendra, Satish, Tarun, Vishal and Prakash, were all born on the same day of the year. But each was born in different six consecutive years. It is also known that _______

(I) Parul is older than Satish

(II) Rajendra is older than both Tarun and Vishal

(III) Prakash is 2 years older than Tarun

(IV) Parul was born either in 1962 or in 1963

(V) The oldest member of the group was born in 1960

Read the above information and Answer the following question ____

Que – Which of the following group is correctly listed from the youngest to the oldest?

• (A) Satish, Parul, Rajendra, Tarun, Vishal, Prakash
• (B) Satish, Vishal, Parul, Tarun, Prakash, Rajendra
• (C) Satish, Vishal, Tarun, Prakash, Parul, Rajendra
• (D) Satish, Vishal, Tarun, Parul, Prakash, Rajendra

Question 67. If in a certain language, ENTRY is coded as 12345 and STEADY is coded as 931785. Then how will the word TENANT is coded?

• (A) 316169
• (B) 396243
• (C) 312723
• (D) 312523

Question 68. A, B, C, D, E and F are cousins. No two cousins are of the same age, but all have birthday on the same date. The youngest is 17 years old and E the oldest is 22 years old. F is somewhere between B and D in age. A is older than B. C is older than D.

Which of the following statement is not possible?

• (A) F is 18 years old
• (B) F is 20 years old
• (C) D is 20 years old
• (D) F is 19 years old.

Question 69. If in a code language “PLAYER” is written as “AELPRY”. Then in the same language “MANAGER” will be written as ________ ?

• (A) AAGEMNR
• (B) AAEMGNR
• (C) AAEGMRN
• (D) AAEGMNR

Question 70. A person walks 8 km in the East direction. There from, he moves 5 km. in the North-West direction. From that place he walks 6 km. in the South direction. His last point will be in the direction _______ from starting point?

• (A) South-East
• (B) South-West
• (C) West-North
• (D) North-East

Question 71. The number of students in a school increases and decreases by 10% respectively in every alternate year. If there was increase in the year 2000 then in how much percentage what happened in the number of students in the year 2003 in comparison to year 2000.

• (A) 8.9% decrease
• (B) 9.8% increase
• (C) 8.9% increase
• (D) 9.8% decrease

Question 72. If the cost of production of an article is \frac{2}{5} of its marked retail price, If it is sold at 10% discount then what will be profit?

• (A) 25%
• (B) 40%
• (C) 50%
• (D) 125%

Question 73. A cycle seller gives 10% discount on marked retail price and still earns 26% profit. If marked retail price of the cycle is Rs. 840/- Then how much money was paid by the seller for that cycle?

• (A) Rs. 600/-
• (B) Rs. 650/-
• (C) Rs. 700/-
• (D) Rs. 750/-

Question 74. Two things were sold at same sale-price. One thing got 10% profit and another suffered 10% loss. The difference of their purchase price will be in multiple of which number, Tell ________

• (A) 10
• (B) 20
• (C) 15
• (D) 25

Question 75. What will be the next number in the given series?

3, 28, 4, 65, 5, 126, 6, ________?

• (A) 264
• (B) 317
• (C) 217
• (D) 246

Question 76. What will come at the place ___(?)____ in the given series?

BZA, DYC, FXE, ?, JVI

• (A) HAG
• (B) HGJ
• (C) HWG
• (D) HYG

Question 77. Two trains of same length are moving in the same direction at the velocity of 46 km per hour and 36 km per hour respectively. The fast train crosses the slow train in 36 seconds. What is the length of each train?

• (A) 50 meters
• (B) 72 meters
• (C) 80 meters
• (D) 82 meters

Question 78. A car driver starting from Bengluru at 8.30 A.M. wants to reach a place 300 km away from Bengluru at 12.30 Noon. At 10.30 A.M. he finds that he has covered only 40% distance. How much speed of the car he has to increase to reach at stipulated time?

• (A) 45 km/hr
• (B) 40 km/hr
• (C) 35 km/hr
• (D) 30 km/hr

Question 79. Out of Rs 20,000/- Prakash gives some amount on loan at simple interest rate 8% per annum and rest amount at simple interest rate \frac{4}{3}% per annum. At the end of year he earns Rs 800/-. The amount given at 8% rate will he _______

• (A) Rs 8,000/-
• (B) Rs 12,000/-
• (C) Rs 6,000/-
• (D) Rs 10,000/-

Question 80. A person takes a some amount on loan at 3% per annum simple interest payable annually. Immediately he gives it on loan at 5% per annum compound interest payable half yearly. At the end of year he earns profit of Rs 330/-. How much amount he tooks on loan?

• (A) Rs. 17,000/-
• (B) Rs. 16,500/-
• (C) Rs. 16,000/-
• (D) Rs. 15,000/-

Question 81. If at the rate of 12\frac{1}{2}% per annum the compound interest is Rs. 510/-. What will be the simple interest on same amount for the same period at the same rate of interest?

• (A) Rs. 400/-
• (B) Rs. 450/-
• (C) Rs. 460/-
• (D) Rs. 480/-

Question 82. Sort out the word which is different in some sense in the following group.

(I) Geometry, (II) Algebra, (III) Trigonometry, (IV) Maths, (V) Arithmetic

• (A) Arithmetic
• (B) Maths
• (C) Algebra
• (D) Trigonometry

Question 83. Which is odd word in these? Tell

(I) Birbal, (II) Abul Fazal, (III) Tansen, (IV) Faiz Ahmad, (V) Todarmal

• (A) Abul Fazal
• (B) Todarmal
• (C) Birbal
• (D) Faiz Ahmad

Question 84. In class of 105 students out of three subjects Maths, Physics, Chemistry each student studies at least one subject. In Maths 47, in Physics 50, and in Chemistry 52 students studies. 16 in Maths and Physics, 17 in Maths and Chemistry and 16 in Physics and Chemistry students both subjects.

What will be the number of students who studies all three subjects?

• (A) 5
• (B) 6
• (C) 7
• (D) 4

Question 85. In a class of 105 students out of three subjects Maths, Physics and Chemistry each student studies at least one subject. In these 47 students studies Maths, 50 students studies Physics and 52 students studies Chemistry and 16 Maths and Physics. 17 Maths and Chemistry and 16 Physics and Chemistry students studies both subjects.

What will be the number of those students who studies only two subjects?

• (A) 31
• (B) 32
• (C) 33
• (D) 34

Question 86. What will be the square root of \frac{(0.1)^2-(0.01)^2}{0.001×0.1}+1

• (A) 10
• (B) 1.0
• (C) 0.1
• (D) 9

Question 87. The ratio of ages of A and B 4 years before was 2 : 3. And after four (4) years it will becomes 5 : 7. After 2 years their age will be _____ ?

• (A) 36 and 40 Years
• (B) 34 and 50 Years
• (C) 42 and 58 Years
• (D) 38 and 54 Years

Question 88. A completes \frac{7}{10} part of work within 15 days. Thereafter with the help of B, he completes the rest of the work within 4 days. B alone will be able to do it in how many days.

• (A) 12\frac{3}{7} days
• (B) 35\frac{5}{17} days
• (C) 28\frac{5}{12} days
• (D) 30\frac{7}{17} days

Question 89. If the value of (102)² is 10404, then value of \sqrt{104.04}+\sqrt{1.0404}+\sqrt{0.010404}

• (A) 11.022
• (B) 10.322
• (C) 11.122
• (D) 11.322

Question 90. In an alloy proportion of Zinc, Copper and Lead is 2 : 3 : 1. In another alloy the proportion of Zine, Copper and Lead is 5 : 4 : 3. A third alloy is prepared by mixing both alloys in same quantity. The proportion of Lead, Copper and Zinc in the third alloy will be.

• (A) 7 : 7 : 4
• (B) 9 : 10 : 5
• (C) 6 : 7 : 4
• (D) 5 : 10 : 9

Question 91. Fill in the blanks using the correct tense (of the verb):

When I ______ (open) the door, I ______ (see) a man on his knees. He ______ (listen) to our conversation and I _______ (wonder) how much he ______ (hear)

• Options :
• (A) open; see; listens; wondered; heard
• (B) opened; saw; had been listening; wondered; had heard.
• (C) opened; saw; has been listening; wonder; has heard.
• (D) opens; sees; listen; wonder; hears.

Question 92. Choose one of the following sentences which is the correct Passive Voice of the sentence given below : (Do not mention the agent).

ACTIVE VOICE : You will have to pull down this skyscraper as you have not complied with the town planning regulations.

• (A) This skyscraper building will be pulled down as the town planning regulations are not complied with.
• (B) The skyscraper building has to be pulled down as the town planning regulations were not complied with.
• (C) This skyscraper will have to be pulled down as the town planning regulations have not been complied with.
• (D) This skyscraper should be pulled down by you as you have not complied with the town planning regulations.

Question 93. Choose a sentence with the correct Indirect form of Narration:

Direct : “I will sell the TV set if you keep quarrelling about the programme”. said their mother. “No, don’t do that ! We will never quarrel”, said the children.

• Options :
• (A) Their mother said that she would sell the TV set if you kept quarrelling about the programme. The children said, don’t do that as we would never quarrel.
• (B) Their mother told that the TV set will be sold if they keep quarrelling about the programme. The children forbade her to do that, saying that they will never quarrel.
• (C) Their mother threatened to sell the TV set if they kept quarrelling about the programme. The children begged her not to do that assuring her that they would never quarrel.
• (D) Their mother threatened that she should sell the TV set if they kept quarrelling about the programme. The children requested her do not do this as we would never quarrel.

Question 94. Choose the correct set of articles to fill in the blanks : (Use ‘X’, if there is no article)

He said, “As ______ matter of _____ fact, there was ______ explosion in ______ last house I visited; and Mr. Beans, ______ owner of _______ house, was burnt in _______ face.

• Options:
• (A) a; X; an; the; the; the; the
• (B) the; a; an; X; the; the; the
• (C) the; the; an; a; the; X; a;
• (D) the; the; X; the; a; a; the

Question 95. Fill in the blanks choosing the correct set of prepositions:

________ mistake I opened Sylvia’s letter instead _______ my own. She was very angry ______ me and said that I’d done it _______ Purpose

• Options:
• (A) With; of; on; with
• (B) By; of; on; with
• (C) On; on; with; with
• (D) By; of; with; on

Question 96. Identify the INCORRECT sentence: (in which the Verb is not in Agreement with the Subject).

• Options:
• (A) Age and experience brings wisdom to man.
• (B) Neither Mr. Y nor Mr. Z has any right to the property.
• (C) The ship’s crew was a mixed group of different nationalities.
• (D) When the ship arrived in part, the crew was taken into custody on a charge of mutiny.

Question 97. Choose the correct set of English translation of the following Hindi Word: (in right order)

मुद्रास्फीति ; वेतन वृद्धि ; प्रतिलेखन

• Options :
• (A) Currency decrease; salary zenith; copyist
• (B) inflation; increment; transcription
• (C) deflation; inscribe; counter-copy
• (D) decreased income; increment; translation

Question 98. The most suitable set of Synonyms of the word ‘generous’ is :

• Options:
• (A) thankful, grateful, indebted
• (B) liberal, bountiful, magnanimous
• (C) gentle, humble, tender
• (D) stately, dignified, exalted

Question 99. The most suitable antonym of the word ‘misanthropist’ is :

• Options:
• (A) Philanthropist
• (B) Anti misanthropist
• (C) Amisanthropist
• (D) Disanthropist

Question 100. The most suitable ‘one word substitute’ of the following words are; (in right order); (a) fear of confined spaces; (b) a person who has an irresistible desire to steal.

• Options:
• (A) (a) agoraphobia; (b) pyromaniac
• (B) (a) spacephobia; (b) dipsomaniac
• (C) (a) clastophobia; (b) theftomaniac
• (D) (a) claustrophobia; (b) kleptomaniac

Question 101. Which is the fastest memory?

• (A) CD ROM
• (B) Hard Disk
• (C) Auxiliary Memory
• (D) Cache Memory

Question 102. Which key of the keyboard is mainly used to cancel the program?

• (A) Del Key
• (B) Enter Key
• (C) Ins Key
• (D) Esc Key

Question 103. Shortcut command for align the text in centre?

• (A) Ctrl+E
• (B) Ctrl+T
• (C) Ctrl+R
• (D) Ctrl+C

Question 104. Multimedia contains?

• (A) Audio
• (B) Video
• (C) Both A and B
• (D) none of the above

Question 105. DNS stand for-

• (A) Domain Number System
• (B) Domain Name System
• (C) Data Name System
• (D) None of the above

Question 106. 1 Kilobyte is equal to-

• (A) 8000 Bits
• (B) 1024 Bits
• (C) 512 Bits
• (D) None of the above

Question 107. 1 Nibble is equal to-

• (A) 4 Bit
• (B) 8 Bit
• (C) 16 Bit
• (D) 4 Byte

Question 108. Highest capacity of the storage are-

• (A) Terabyte
• (B) Yottabyte
• (C) Zettabyte
• (D) Exabyte

Question 109. The Speed of modem is measured in which unit?

• (A) BPS
• (B) GPS
• (C) CPS
• (D) None of the above

Question 110. What is the full form of ISDN?

• (A) Input Service Digital Network
• (B) Integrated Services Digital Network
• (C) Integrated Switch Digital Network
• (D) Input Switch Digital Network

Question 111. निम्नलिखित में से किस समूह के सभी शब्द पर्यायवाची हैं-

• (A) सोना- कंचन, कनक, जातरूप, स्वर्णयूथिका
• (B) धनुर्धर- धनुषधारी, कमनैत, तीरन्दाज़, बानैत
• (C) पृथ्वी- अचना, पृथुल, अवनि, वसुन्धरा
• (D) निर्झर- निर्झरिणी, झरना, प्रपात, चश्मा

Question 112. किस समूह में यण-सन्धि रहित शब्द है-

• (A) देव्यैश्वर्य, प्रत्युपकार, नद्यूर्मि
• (B) अन्वित, सख्युचित न्यून
• (C) पित्रनुमति, यद्यपि, षडानन
• (D) मात्रानन्द, नद्यर्पण, देव्यागम

Question 113. मुहावरे का युक्तियुक्त अर्थ नहीं है-

• (A) छठी का राजा – कठिन परिश्रम करने वाला
• (B) पेंदे के बल बैठना – पराभव मानना
• (C) छाती उमड़ आना – प्रेम या करुणा से गद्गद् होना
• (D) चादर से बाहर पैर फैलाना – मर्यादा का उल्लंघन करना

Question 114. शुद्ध विपरीतार्थी युक्त विकल्प है-

• (A) अपकर्ष – उत्कर्ष, अभिज्ञ – भिज्ञ, अनुराग – विराम
• (B) सरल – कठिन, सम्मुख – विमुख, क्षम्य – अक्षम
• (C) विज्ञ – सुविज्ञ, लघु – गुरु, कृत – अकृत
• (D) अनिवार्य – निवार्य, एकाग्रचित – अन्यमनस्क, अनुलोम – प्रतिलोम

Question 115. किस विकल्प में उपसर्ग से रहित शब्द है-

• (A) पराजय, पराभव, परायण
• (B) अकाल, अथल, अपढ़
• (C) कुघड़ी, कुपुत्र, कुठौर
• (D) दुश्चिन्ता, दुष्कर्म, दुस्साहस

Question 116. किस विकल्प के सभी पद कर्मधारय समास से निर्मित है-

• (A) महालक्ष्मी, भूत-प्रेत, कालीमिर्च, लालपीला
• (B) निडर, पूर्वरात्र, खड़ीबोली, ऊँचनीच
• (C) घृतान्न, छायातरु, पर्णशाला, चन्द्रमुख
• (D) महाजन, खुशबू, जीवजन्तु, सुन्दरलाल

Question 117. लोकोक्ति का युक्तियुक्त अर्थ है-

• (A) रुपया तो शेख नहीं तो जुलाहा- रुपये से रुपया पैदा होता है।
• (B) घर ही के मर्द हैं – डरपोक आदमी
• (C) छूटा बाज न आवे हाथ – लाभकर वस्तु कुरुप भी हो तो अच्छी है।
• (D) कन-कन जोड़े मन जुड़े-बिना परिश्रम मनोकामना सिद्ध हो जाती है।

Question 118. अशुद्ध अर्थयुक्त युग्म शब्द वाला विकल्प है-

• (A) परावर्त = अदला बदली, परावृत्त = लौटा हुआ, परि = आसपास, परि = अप्सरा, परिखा = खाई, परीक्षा = इम्तहान
• (B) शालि = चावल, शाली = काला जीरा, झक = सनक, झख = मछली, चंचल = अस्थिर, चंचला = लक्ष्मी
• (C) परमान्न = खीर, प्रमाण = सबूत, उर = हृदय, उरू = जंघा, तर्क = दलील, तक्र = छाछ
• (D) कुट = घर, कूट = पर्वत की चोटी, किंकिर = कोकिल, किंकिनी = करधनी, कास = लम्बी घास, काँस = खाँसी

Question 119. शुद्ध स्थानापन्न शब्द नहीं है-

• (A) जो वाणी अथवा मन से ग्रहण न किया जा सके- अवाङ् मनसागोचर
• (B) निद्रा को जीत लेने वाला – गुडाकेश
• (C) एक ही लेखक के ग्रन्थों का (एक ज़िल्द में) प्रकाशन – आत्मकथा
• (D) पाँच वृक्षों का समहारा – पंचवटी

Question 120. ‘आ’ प्रत्यय से निर्मित हिन्दी कृदन्त (सभी शब्द युग्म) शब्द समूह है-

• (A) घेरा, छापा, उतारा, झटका
• (B) फेरा, भूखा, रगड़ा, मेला
• (C) जोड़ा, तोड़ा, बोझा, धोया
• (D) झगड़ा, टोटा, बैठा, चूरा

Important Link

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RSSB Gram Sevak & Hostal Supritendent Grade II Question Paper 2016 (Test)	Online Test
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Download RSSB Gram Sevak & Hostal Supritendent Grade II Exam 2016 Answer Key PDF	First | Final
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