RPSC RAS Pre Solved Question Paper 2013 (19-11-2013)

General Information about RPSC RAS Prelims Question Paper 2013 (19-11-2013)

Exam Board	Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC)
Exam Name	Rajasthan State and Subordinate Services Combined Competitive (Preliminary) Examination, 2013
Exam Date	19-11-2013
Exam Mode	Offline
Question paper language	Hindi & English
Question paper type	Objective
Subject	General Knowledge and General Science
Total Question	150
Maximum Marks	200
Negative Marking	1/3
Time	03.00 Hours

This question paper includes questions related to the following subjects :-

1. History, Art, Culture, Literature, Tradition & Heritage of Rajasthan
2. Indian History
3. Geography of World
4. Geography of India
5. Geography of Rajasthan
6. Indian Constitution, Political System & Governance
7. Political and Administrative System of Rajasthan
8. Economic Concepts and Indian Economy
9. Economy of Rajasthan
10. Science & Technology
11. Reasoning & Mental Ability
12. Current Affairs

Question 1. If in a certain language, GOOD is coded as HQRH, which word will be coded DRFAM (DREAM) in the same language?

• (A) ESFBN
• (B) ETHER
• (C) ETHPQ
• (D) ESHDR

Question 2. In an alarm clock, the alarm hand because of mechanical defect moves 1 minute faster in every half hour. If the alarm is set for 3 afternoon at 12 noon, then alarm will ring at :

• (A) 3.30 pm
• (B) 4.00 pm
• (C) 4.30 pm
• (D) 5.00 pm

Question 3. A bag contains 25 paisa, 50 paisa and 1 Re. coins. There are 220 coins in all and the total amount in the bag is Rs. 160. If there are thrice as many as 1 Re. coins as there are 25 paisa coins, then what is the number of 50 paisa coins ?

• (A) 120
• (B) 80
• (C) 60
• (D) 40

Question 4. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the fourth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word CONTROVERSIAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, given ‘M’ as the answer. If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer, then correct answer is :

• (A) X
• (B) V
• (C) M
• (D) T

Question 5. A sum of Rs. 671 is divided among A, B, C such that if there shares be increased by Rs. 3, Rs. 7 and Rs. 9 respectively. The resulting share shall be in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, then B’s share is :

• (A) Rs. 224
• (B) Rs. 112
• (C) Rs. 230.66
• (D) Rs. 223

Question 6. The hours hand and minutes hand of a clock are 4 cm and 6 cm long respectively. Then the ratio of distances travelled by tip of hours hand in 2 days and tip of minutes hand in 3 days is :

• (A) 2 : 3
• (B) 1 : 4
• (C) 1 : 9
• (D) 1 : 27

Question 7. Study the following bar graph, then answer the question given below it :

Which state has twice the percentage of villages electrified in comparison to state ‘D’ ?

• (A) A
• (B) C
• (C) E
• (D) F

Question 8. The metro service has a train giving from Mumbai to Pune and Pune to Mumbai every hour. The first one at 6 am. The trio from one city to other takes 4.30 hours and all trains travel at the same speed. How many trains through a passenger will pass while going from Mumbai to Pune if he starts at 12 noon?

• (A) 9
• (B) 13
• (C) 8
• (D) 10

Question 9. Three different positions of the same dice have shown in the following figures. Which of the colour will be opposite to the red surface?

• (A) White
• (B) Brown
• (C) Yellow
• (D) Green

Question 10. Study the following pie chart and answer the question given below it :

A- Paper

B- Advertisement

C- Binding

D- Printing

E- Royalty

F- Miscellaneous

How much percent more is spent on advertisement than that on binding?

• (A) 2.5
• (B) 9
• (C) 10
• (D) 28

Question 11. In August, 2013, the FIBA Asia Championship for men was held at :

• (A) Hongkong
• (B) Beirut
• (C) Manila
• (D) Ankara

Question 12. Iran and P5+1 talks were held in Geneva in October, 2013. In this ‘+1’ stands for :

• (A) India
• (B) Germany
• (C) Israel
• (D) European Union

Question 13. India’s first film to be awarded the best film in Cannes Film Festival in 1946 is :

• (A) Dastak
• (B) Do Beegha Zameen
• (C) Neecha Nagar
• (D) Garam Hawa

Question 14. Consider the following statements :

(I) The Man Booker Prize, 2013 has been won by Eleanor Catton.

(II) She belongs to Australia.

(III) It has been conferred on her book ‘The Luminaries’.

(IV) She has the youngest Literature to have won it.

Identify the correct statement/s using the codes given below :

• (A) (I) and (III) only
• (B) (I) and (II) only
• (C) (II), (III) and (IV) only
• (D) (I), (III) and (IV) only

Question 15. How many sessions of 13^th Rajasthan Legislative Assembly took place?

• (A) 9
• (B) 11
• (C) 13
• (D) 14

Question 16. Narendra Dabholkar was the Editor of a renowned Marathi Weekly, called :

• (A) Satyashodhak
• (B) Nastik
• (C) Andh Shraddha Nirmoolan
• (D) Sadhana

Question 17. Match the following lists :

List-X	List-Y
(a) INS Chakra	(I) Submarine, partially sank on 14th August, 2013
(b) INS Aridhaman	(II) Akula class Nuclear Submarine on lease from Russia
(c) INS Arihant	(III) India’s second-to-be indigenously built Nuclear Submarine
(d) INS Sindhurakshak	(IV) India’s First indigenously built Nuclear submarine

Codes :

• (A) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
• (B) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
• (C) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
• (D) a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV

Question 18. On 23^rd October, 2013 when Prime Minister Manmohan Singh was visiting China, Prime Ministers of two other countries also began their visit to China; these two countries are :

• (A) Japan and Russia
• (B) Vietnam and Australia
• (C) Russia and Mangolia
• (D) Vietnam and Indonesia

Question 19. President of the International Olympic Committee is :

• (A) Jacques Rogge
• (B) Thomas Bach
• (C) Richard Carrison
• (D) Julian Samaranch

Question 20. The National Highway, which connects Hyderabad to Bangluru is :

• (A) N. H. 44
• (B) N. H. 47
• (C) N. H. 27
• (D) N. H. 34

Question 21. The Grandmaster from Bhilwara, who won the Commonwealth Chess Championship in July 2013 in South Africa is :

• (A) Abhijeet Gupta
• (B) G. Akash
• (C) Sahaj Grover
• (D) Rakesh Kulkarni

Question 22. Consider the following Statements :

(I) Virat Kohli scored faster ODI century by an Indian at Jaipur on 16^th October, 2013.

(II) He scored century in 50 balls.

(III) He broke the record of Virender Sehwag, who scored century in 60 balls.

(IV) Kohli is the 10^th fastest century scorer in ODIs in the world.

Indentify the correct statement/s using the codes given below :

• (A) (I), (II) and (III) only
• (B) (I) and (III) only
• (C) (I) and (IV) only
• (D) (II) and (IV) only

Question 23. Head of the government of which country cancelled his/her official visit to United States of America in October, 2013 as a protest against its electronic surveillance under Prism Program?

• (A) Venezuela
• (B) Germany
• (C) Spain
• (D) Brazil

Question 24. Match the following lists :

List-X (Dronacharya Awardee Coach of Year 2013)	List-Y (Related sport)
(a) Poornima Mahto	(I) Hockey
(b) Mahaveer Singh	(II) Athletics
(c) K. P. Thomas	(III) Archery
(d) Raj Singh	(IV) Wrestling
	(V) Boxing

Codes :

• (A) a-III, b-V, c-II, d-IV
• (B) a-II, b-IV, c-V, d-I
• (C) a-V, b-III, c-IV, d-II
• (D) a-II, b-V, c-III, d-I

Question 25. The deepest Railway tunnel inaugurated by Prime Minister R. T. Erdogan recently in Turkey is called :

• (A) Gotthard Rail Tunnel
• (B) Channel Tunnel
• (C) Bolmen Water Tunnel
• (D) Marmary Tunnel

Question 26. For how many years, the Telegram Service in India operated, before it was closed forever on July 14^th, 2013?

• (A) 156 years
• (B) 160 years
• (C) 163 years
• (D) 168 years

Question 27. Who has been awarded Bal Sahitya Puraskar of 2013 in Rajasthani language by Sahitya Akademi, New Delhi?

• (A) Aaidan Singh Bhati
• (B) Atul Kanak
• (C) Dinesh Panchal
• (D) Vimal Bhandari

Question 28. India’s Mars Orbiter Mission on 5^th November, 2013 was launched by the Rocket :

• (A) PSLV- C21
• (B) PSLV- C25
• (C) GSLV- III
• (D) GSLV- I

Question 29. Among the following, which Hindi Novel has been written by Rajendra Yadav?

• (A) Saara Aakash
• (B) Andhere Band Kamare
• (C) Raag Darbari
• (D) Aadha Gaon

Question 30. Among the following which Assembly Constituency of Rajasthan is numbered as 1 by Election Commission of India?

• (A) Ajmer (North)
• (B) Manoharthana
• (C) Sadulshahar
• (D) Bansur

Question 31. Blue tooth technology is used in-

• (A) Land line phone to mobile phone communication.
• (B) Wireless communication between equipments.
• (C) Signal transmission on mobile phones only.
• (D) Satellite television communication.

Question 32. Which country was the first to launch artificial satellite?

• (A) USA
• (B) Russia
• (C) China
• (D) Germany

Question 33. NASA’s first mission capable of finding Earth size and smaller planets around other stars is-

• (A) Wessler
• (B) Hubble
• (C) Cassini
• (D) Kepler

Question 34. Which one of the following, is the India’s First indegenous aircraft carrier?

• (A) INS Virat
• (B) INS Vishal
• (C) INS Viram
• (D) INS Vikrant

Question 35. Which of the following are battle tanks?

• (A) Arjun and T-72
• (B) Arjun and AN-32
• (C) Maharaja and T-72
• (D) Maharaja and AN-32

Question 36. Nanotechnology is related to

• (A) Atomic engineering
• (B) Carbon engineering
• (C) Microbiology
• (D) Microphysics

Question 37. Consider the following statements :

(I) Nanotechnology is based on nanometre scale.

(II) Nanomaterials may be characterized by electron microscopy.

(III) Plasma synthesis is the physical technique for synthesis of nanomaterials.

Which of the above statement/s is/are true?

• (A) (I) only
• (B) (III) only
• (C) (I) and (II)
• (D) (II) and (III)

Question 38. Consider the following statements :

(I) Vitamins are a class of nutrients that cannot be biosynthesized by the human body except vitamins A and D.

(II) Vitamins E and K are water soluble.

(III) Vitamins B and C are fat soluble.

Which of the above statement/s is/are true?

• (A) (I) only
• (B) (II) only
• (C) (I) and (II)
• (D) (II) and (III)

Question 39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

List-I	List-II
(a) Dhobie itch	(I) Virus
(b) Malaria	(II) Bacteria
(c) Pneumonia	(III) Protozoa
(d) Mumps	(IV) Fungi
	(V) Worms

Codes :

• (A) a-IV, b-V, c-III, d-II
• (B) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
• (C) a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
• (D) a-III, b-V, c-IV, d-II

Question 40. Assertion (I) : Coal based thermal power stations contribute to acid rain.

Reason (II) : Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Codes :

• (A) Both (I) and (II) are correct and (II) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are correct but (II) is not the correct explanation of (I).
• (C) (I) is true, but (II) is false.
• (D) (I) is false, but (III) is true.

Question 41. Which of the following atomspheric gases are responsible for green house effect?

(I) Carbon dioxide

(II) Methane

(III) Oxygen

(IV) Nitrogen

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

• (A) (I) and (II)
• (B) (II) and (III)
• (C) (I) and (III)
• (D) (II) and (IV)

Question 42. Assertion (I) : Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting Bt gene.

Reason (II) : The Bt gene is derived from insects.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Codes :

• (A) Both (I) and (II) are true and (II) is the correct explanation of (I).
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are true but (II) is not the correct explanation of (I).
• (C) (I) is true, but (II) is false.
• (D) (I) is false, but (II) is true.

Question 43. Biodiversity hotspots resulting from extremely dense human population leading to destruction of natural habitats are found in :

(I) Bangladesh

(II) China

(III) India

(IV) Indonesia

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

• (A) (I) and (II)
• (B) (I) and (IV)
• (C) (I), (II) and (III)
• (D) (II), (III) and (IV)

Question 44. World’s first genetically modified dairy calf has been named as-

• (A) Dolly
• (B) Jolly
• (C) Lakes
• (D) Rivers

Question 45. “Roundup Ready”- the first crop engineered for glyphosphate resistance contains modified genes for the enzyme-

• (A) Enol pyruvic 3-phosphate transferase
• (B) Enol pyruvilshikimate 3-phosphate synthase
• (C) Phospho enol pyruvate
• (D) Phospho enol transferase

Question 46. In which region of Rajasthan, Central Arid Zone Research Institute is conducting project on standardization, conservation and propagation techniques of economically important shrubs and herbs?

• (A) Bharatpur region
• (B) Jaisalmer region
• (C) Kota region
• (D) Udaipur region

Question 47. Which one of the following regions is the major centre for study on agri-silvi-horti-system under irrigation system in Rajasthan?

• (A) Alwar region
• (B) Ajmer region
• (C) Bhilwara region
• (D) Bikaner region

Question 48. Central Research Institute of arid horticulture is located at

• (A) Bikaner
• (B) Jodhpur
• (C) Jaisalmer
• (D) Nagaur

Question 49. Which one of the following statements is correct?

• (A) Central Electro-Chemical Research Institute is located at Borkheda (Kota).
• (B) Central Salt Research Institute is located at Sambhar (Jaipur).
• (C) Central Electronic Engineering Research Institute is located at Pilani (Jhunjhunu).
• (D) Central Road Research Institute is located at Abu Road (Sirohi).

Question 50. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

List-I (Research Centres)	List-II (Districts)
(a) Coriander	(I) Ajmer
(b) Horse	(II) Bharatpur
(c) Mustard	(III) Bikaner
(d) Sheep	(IV) Kota
	(V) Tonk

Codes :

• (A) a-II, b-V, c-I, d-IV
• (B) a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
• (C) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-V
• (D) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-V

Question 51. Two statements are given, followed by four conclusions. It is required to find out which of the conclusions logically follow from the given statements ?

Statements :

All knowledge is good.

All knowledge is difficult.

Conclusions :

(I) Some good things are difficult.

(II) All difficult things are knowledge.

(III) All good things are difficult.

(IV) Easy things are not knowledge.

• (A) (I)
• (B) (II)
• (C) (III)
• (D) (IV)

Question 52. The age of Ena is twice as old as Seema. What is the difference in their ages?

Statements :

(I) After five years, the ratio of their ages would be 9 : 5.

(II) Before ten years, the ratio of their ages was 3 : 1.

Then which one is sufficient?

• (A) Only statement (I)
• (B) Only statement (II)
• (C) Both (I) and (II) together
• (D) Not both (I) and (II)

Question 53. If k = x – y + 2z where -2≤x≤1, -1≤y≤2 and 3≤z≤6, then

• (A) 0≤k≤9
• (B) 5≤k≤11
• (C) 2≤k≤14
• (D) 2≤k≤4

Question 54. If XoY means X is the wife of Y; X*Y means X is the son of Y and X▢Y means X is the sister of Y. Which of the following would mean that A is the daughter of B?

• (A) A*C▢DoB
• (B) AoC*D▢B
• (C) A▢CoD*B
• (D) A▢C*DoB

Question 55. If 5% of x is added to x and the 5% of the result is substracted from the result, then the value of x :

• (A) Increases
• (B) Decreases
• (C) No change
• (D) Can’t say

Question 56. Which two months in a year have the same calendar?

• (A) June, October
• (B) April, November
• (C) April, July
• (D) October, December

Question 57. The 288^th term of the series a,b,b,c,c,c,d,d,d,d,e,e,e,e,e,f,f,f,f,f,f,………. is.

• (A) v
• (B) w
• (C) x
• (D) y

Question 58. The minimum number of different colours that can be filled in the portions of the figure given below where no two colours are same in adjoining portions is :

• (A) 3
• (B) 4
• (C) 5
• (D) 6

Question 59. The missing number in following figure is :

• (A) 9
• (B) 10
• (C) 11
• (D) 12

Question 60. The two digit number when divided by sum of the digits and product of the digits respectively the remainder is same and the difference of quotients is one, then the number is :

• (A) 14
• (B) 23
• (C) 32
• (D) 41

Question 61. The National Minorities Development and Finance Corporation (NMDFC) in India was set up in :

• (A) 1994
• (B) 1990
• (C) 1991
• (D) 1993

Question 62. Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment of adolescent girls named ‘Sabla’ includes the girls of the age group :

• (A) 9 to 12 years
• (B) 10 to 15 years
• (C) 11 to 18 years
• (D) 15 to 18 years

Question 63. Assertion (I) : There is a sharp fall in tax buoyancy in 2011-12.

Reason (II) : During 2011-12, both direct and indirect tax revenues grew at a very fast rate.

Examine these two statements and select the answer using the code given below :

• (A) Both (I) and (II) are true and (II) is the correct explanation of (I).
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are true but (II) is not the correct explanation of (I).
• (C) (I) is true, but (II) is false.
• (D) (I) is false, but (II) is true.

Question 64. Estimated percentage of persons below the poverty line in 2011-12 by Tendulkar method using mixed reference period in India is :

• (A) 27.5
• (B) 37.2
• (C) 21.9
• (D) 32.4

Question 65. The Twelfth Five Year Plan of India mainly focuses on :

• (A) accelerating industrial growth
• (B) increasing rate of investment
• (C) accelerating employment growth
• (D) faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth

Question 66. In recent years, composition of tax revenue collected by the Union Government is showing that :

• (A) Direct tax proceeds are larger than indirect tax proceeds
• (B) Direct tax proceeds are smaller than indirect tax proceeds
• (C) Direct tax proceeds are almost equal to indirect tax proceeds
• (D) Direct tax proceeds are twice the size of indirect tax proceeds

Question 67. What was the most worrisome result of the population census of 2011 in Rajasthan as compared to 2001?

• (A) Growth rate of population between 2001-2011 was high.
• (B) Literacy rate in 2011 was still on the lower side.
• (C) General sex-ratio in 2011 did not increase much.
• (D) Sex ratio in the age group 0-6 years declined.

Question 68. Which five year plan showed highest growth rate in Rajasthan so far, on the basis of NSDP at 2004-05 prices?

• (A) Seventh
• (B) Tenth
• (C) Eleventh
• (D) Sixth

Question 69. What was the target of fiscal deficit as prescribed under the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget management Act, 2005?

• (A) 3% of GSDP
• (B) 3.5% of GSDP
• (C) 4% of GSDP
• (D) zero% of GSDP

Question 70. Rajasthan Agriculture Competitiveness Project has been launched during 2012-13. This project is mainly emphasizing :

• (A) Judicious use of irrigation water
• (B) Mechanisation
• (C) Organic farming
• (D) Balanced use of fertilizers

Question 71. Which of the following fact/facts is/are correct?

(I) Rajasthan has a rich mineral base, making up 22 percent of the industrial mineral production of the country.

(II) Mining alone contributes about 5 percent of GDP of Rajasthan.

(III) Western Rajasthan has substantial deposits of lignite.

• (A) (I) and (II) are correct
• (B) (I) and (III) are correct
• (C) (II) and (III) are correct
• (D) All of the above are correct

Question 72. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

• (A) Benthali Irrigation Project – Baran
• (B) Chakan Irrigation Project – Bundi
• (C) Bandi-Sendra Irrigation Project – Jalore
• (D) Sukli Irrigation Project – Pali

Question 73. The Planning Commission has updated recently the poverty estimates for the year 2011-12. According to these estimates what are the percentages of population below the poverty line in Rajasthan?

• (A) 25 percent
• (B) 20 percent
• (C) 15 percent
• (D) 22 percent

Question 74. Which agency is working as the nodel agency of the Government of Rajasthan to facilitate investments in various sectors in the state?

• (A) Investment Promotion Board of Rajasthan
• (B) The Bureau of Investment Promotion
• (C) Industrial Investment Board of Rajasthan
• (D) RIICO

Question 75. Match List-I with List-II regarding growth targets of 12^th five year plan of Rajasthan for different sectors of the economy :

List-I (Sector)	List-II (Growth Target)
(a) Agriculture	(I) 7.7
(b) Industry	(II) 9.5
(c) Services	(III) 8.0
(d) All sectors	(IV) 3.5

Codes :

• (A) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
• (B) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
• (C) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
• (D) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II

Question 76. Match the following :

Irrigation Project	Participatory State/States
(a) Chambal Project	(I) Only Rajasthan
(b) Mahi-Bajaj Sagar Project	(II) Rajasthan and M.P.
(c) Beas Project	(III) Rajasthan and Gujarat
(d) Sidhmukh Project	(IV) Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan
	(V) Punjab and Rajasthan

Codes :

• (A) a-II, b-III, c- IV, d-IV
• (B) a-II, b-IV, c-IV, d-I
• (C) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-V
• (D) a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I

Question 77. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

List-I	List-II
(a) Aerometer	(I) Measurement of altitude
(b) Ammeter	(II) Measurement of engine speed
(c) Anemometer	(III) Measurement of electric current
(d) Altimeter	(IV) Measurement of wind speed
	(V) Measurement of air/gas density/weight

Codes :

• (A) a-III, b-II, c- V, d-I
• (B) a-III, b-V, c-IV, d-II
• (C) a-V, b-III, c-IV, d-I
• (D) a-V, b-IV, c-III, d-II

Question 78. Assertion (I) : On the front side of an ambulance, the letters are usually written as

Reason (II) : Images formed in mirrors are laterally inverted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Codes :

• (A) Both (I) and (II) are correct and (II) is the correct explanation of (I).
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are correct but (II) is not the correct explanation of (I).
• (C) (I) is true, but (II) is false.
• (D) (I) is false, but (II) is true.

Question 79. The domestic electric appliances, these days, have star ratings (upto 5 stars) on them. The number of stars on them denotes that, more the number of stars-

(I) longer the life span of the appliance

(II) higher the energy efficiency of the appliance.

(III) better performance of the appliance.

Which of the above statement/s is/are true?

• (A) (I) only
• (B) (II) only
• (C) (I) and (II) both
• (D) (I) and (III) both

Question 80. In a LAN network every system is identified by-

• (A) Name
• (B) MAC Address
• (C) IP Address
• (D) Serial Number given by manufacturer

Question 81. Which Political Party considers that the present Indian State is the organ of the class rule of the Bourgeoisie and Landlords led by the big Bourgeoisie?

• (A) Communist Party of India
• (B) Communist Party of India (Marxist)
• (C) Communist Party of India (Marxist-Leninist)
• (D) Samajwadi Party

Question 82. Consider the following statements :

(I) The Comptroller and Auditor General is the Head of Indian Audit and Accounts Service.

(II) Shashi Kant Sharma is the 11^th Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Select the correct code :

• (A) Only (I) is true.
• (B) Only (II) is true.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are true.
• (D) Both (I) and (II) are false.

Question 83. Identify the incorrect pair of middle tier of Panchayati Raj Institutions and the concerned state :

• (A) Kshetra Samiti – Uttar Pradesh
• (B) Panchayat Union Council – Tamil Nadu
• (C) Taluka Panchayat – Gujarat
• (D) Panchayat Samiti – Madhya Pradesh

Question 84. After the enactment by Parliament of India, the Date of commencement of ‘Right to Information Act’ is :

• (A) 15 June, 2005
• (B) 22 June, 2005
• (C) 2 October, 2005
• (D) 12 October, 2005

Question 85. Assertion (I) : After the Supreme Court verdict in Maneka Gandhi Case, 1978 practically the doctrine of ‘Due process of Law’ is followed in India.

Reason (II) : According to Article 14 of the Constitution, State can not indulge in arbitrariness.

Select the correct codes :

• (A) Both (I) and (II) are true, and (II) is the correct explanation of (I).
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are true, and (II) is not the correct explanation of (I).
• (C) (I) is true, but (II) is false.
• (D) (I) is false, but (II) is true.

Question 86. Assertion (I) : ‘Communalism fundamentally and above all is an Ideology’. (Bipin Chandra)

Reason (II) : Communalism may flourish without the occurrence of communal violence.

Select the correct codes :

• (A) Both (I) and (II) are true, and (II) is the correct explanation of (I).
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are true, and (II) is not the correct explanation of (I).
• (C) (I) is true, but (II) is false.
• (D) (I) is false, but (II) is true.

Question 87. Consider the following regarding the power of the Governor to reserve a bill passed by the legislature for the reconsideration of the President of India :

(I) If it is in the direct opposition to the Directive Principles of State Policy.

(II) If the bill passed by the state legislature is of grave national importance.

(III) If it endangers the position of the High Court.

(IV) If the bill deals with the compulsory aquisition of property under Article 31 (3) of Indian Constitution.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

• (A) (I) and (II)
• (B) (III) and (IV)
• (C) (I), (II) and (III)
• (D) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

Question 88. According to Constitution Amendment (Ninety one) Act, 2004, what will be maximum strength of Council of Ministers in the State?

• (A) 10% of total members of State Legislative Assembly
• (B) 12% of total members of State Legislative Assembly
• (C) 15% of total members of State Legislative Assembly
• (D) 20% of total members of State Legislative Assembly

Question 89. Consider the following about financial committees of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly :

(I) There are three financial committees.

(II) Each committee has fifteen members.

(III) The Chairmen of committees are appointed by the Legislative Assembly’s Speaker.

(IV) The committees submit their report to the Legislative Assembly.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

• (A) (I) and (II)
• (B) (I), (II) and (III)
• (C) (II), (III) and (IV)
• (D) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

Question 90. Which of following is not recommended by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission for functions of State Public Service Commission?

• (A) Recruitment of candidates for higher level posts under the state Government (Class I and Class II positions of various state cadres).
• (B) Advising government on transfers from one service to another.
• (C) Advising government on senior level promotions through the DPC.
• (D) Recruitment and promotions to teaching posts in government colleges and fully funded units of the universities.

Question 91. Consider the following regarding the meaning of allegation under the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Up-Lokayakta Act :

(I) It means any affirmation that such public servant has abused his position as such to obtain, any gain or favour himself or any other person or to cause undue harm or hardship to other person.

(II) Any action or failure to take action in performance of duty by a public servant for some advantage.

(III) Public servant was actuated in the discharge of his functions as public servant by personal interest or improper or corrupt motives.

(IV) Public servant is guilty of corruption or lack of integrity in his capacity as such public servant.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

• (A) (I) and (II)
• (B) (II) and (III)
• (C) (I), (II) and (IV)
• (D) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

Question 92. Consider the following regarding High Court Bench at Jaipur :

(I) The permanent Bench of High Court of Rajasthan was established in 1977.

(II) The order for establishment of permanent bench was mad by Governor of Rajasthan.

(III) The order was made for establishment of bench under State Reorganization Act, 1956.

(IV) Jaipur bench has not been given the status of principal bench.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

• (A) (I) and (II)
• (B) (I) and (III)
• (C) (I), (III) and (IV)
• (D) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

Question 93. Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer by using code given below :

List-I (Comment about District Collector)	List-II (Given by)
(a) Compare the District Collector with that tortoise on whose back stood the elephant of Government of India	(I) Report of Indian Statutory Commissions, 1930
(b) District Collector should be a lawyer, an accountant, a surveyor and a ready writer of state papers	(II) Prime Minister’s address given on 20th May 2005
(c) There is not, and never has been, an official quite like the Collector anywhere else	(III) Ramsay Macdonald
(d) Linchpin of administration	(IV) K. K. Dass

Codes :

• (A) a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
• (B) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
• (C) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
• (D) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II

Question 94. Which one of following is not the member of the committee constituted for the appointment of the State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioner?

• (A) The Chief Minister of the State who shall be the chairperson of the Committee
• (B) A judge of State High Court to be nominated by the Governor
• (C) The leader of opposition in the State Legislative Assembly
• (D) A Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Chief Minister

Question 95. Consider the following objectives of Rajasthan Industrial and Investment Promotion Policy-2010.

(I) To encourage rapid growth of sectors in which Rajasthan has natural or strategic advantages

(II) To promote rural industrialization

(III) To achieve optimal development of human capital and promote a knowledge led growth

(IV) Enhance employment opportunities for growing youth population

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

• (A) (I) and (II)
• (B) (I) and (IV)
• (C) (I), (II) and (III)
• (D) (I), (III) and (IV)

Question 96. Consider the following statements about State Election Commission in Rajasthan :

(I) It was constituted in July under the Article 243 k of Constitution of India.

(II) It is a Multimember commission headed by the State Election Commissioner.

(III) It has a secretary who is also the State Electoral Officer of the State.

(IV) It prepares electroal rolls and conducts elections for Panchayati Raj Institutions and Municipal bodies.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

• (A) (I) and (IV)
• (B) (II) and (IV)
• (C) (I), (III) and (IV)
• (D) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

Question 97. According to Human Development Report, 2013 India’s rank in human development index is :

• (A) 133
• (B) 134
• (C) 136
• (D) 139

Question 98. A condition of slow economic growth and relative high unemployment combined with a persistent rise in general price level is termed as :

• (A) Recession
• (B) Core inflation
• (C) Disinflation
• (D) Stagflation

Question 99. Consider the objectives of National Manufacturing Policy, 2011 and select correct answer by using code given below :

(I) To increase manufacturing sector growth to 12-14 percent over the medium term.

(II) To create 100 million additional jobs by 2025 in manufacturing sector.

(III) To enhance global competitiveness of Indian manufacturing through appropriate policy support.

(IV) To increase manufacturing exports at the rate of 25 percent per annum during XII plan period.

Codes :

• (A) (I), (II) and (III)
• (B) (I), (II) and (IV)
• (C) (I), (III) and (IV)
• (D) (II), (III) and (IV)

Question 100. Match the following :

Agriculture Development Programme	Objective
(a) National Food Security Mission	(I) Focussing on small and marginal farmers covering integrated farming in order to enhance farmer’s income
(b) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana	(II) To enhance the production of rice, wheat and pulses.
(c) National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture	(III) To enhance public investment in agriculture
(d) Rainfed Area Development Programme	(IV) To transform Indian agriculture into a climate resilient production system

Codes :

• (A) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
• (B) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
• (C) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
• (D) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV

Question 101. Examine the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below :

(I) Suez canal was constructed by an Anglo-French Company.

(II) It was opened for traffic in 1869.

(III) It shortens the London-Indian West coast distance to 6100 miles.

(IV) The Suez canal directly links West Europe to Australian route and even eastern coasts of North America and Monsoon Asian trading is also served by this route.

Codes :

• (A) (I) and (II) are correct.
• (B) (II) and (III) are correct.
• (C) (I), (III) and (IV) are correct.
• (D) (I), (II), (III) and (IV) are correct.

Question 102. Match the following and select the correct answer using the code given below :

National Highway Number	Route
(a) 3	(I) Varanasi to Kanyakumari
(b) 7	(II) Agra to Mumbai
(c) 8	(III) Delhi to Lucknow
(d) 24	(IV) Delhi to Mumbai

Codes :

• (A) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
• (B) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
• (C) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
• (D) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I

Question 103. The following map shows the location of coal-fields in Jharkhand as (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Identify and answer the correct sequence as given below the map.

• (A) Daltenganj, North Karanpur, Bokaro, Jharia
• (B) North Karanpur, Daltenganj, Jharia, Bokaro
• (C) Jharia, Bokaro, North Karanpur, Daltenganj
• (D) Bokaro, Jharia, Daltenganj, North Karanpur

Question 104. Match the following and select the correct answer using the code given below :

Iron-Ore deposit	State
(a) Mayurbhanj	(I) Karnataka
(b) Kudermukh deposits	(II) Orissa
(c) Bailadila	(III) Jharkhand
(d) Bonai range	(IV) Chhattisgarh

Codes :

• (A) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
• (B) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
• (C) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
• (D) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV

Question 105. Which group of the following is the correct sequence of the mountain peaks of Rajasthan in descending order according to their heights?

• (A) Taragarh, Roja Bhakar, Kho and Bairath
• (B) Roja Bhakar, Bairath, Kho and Taragarh
• (C) Kho, Taragarh, Roja Bhakar and Bairath
• (D) Kho, Raja Bhakar, Bairath and Taragarh

Question 106. Which of the following two districts are having highest forest area in Rajasthan?

• (A) Udaipur and Baran
• (B) Dungarpur and Banswara
• (C) Sirohi and Udaipur
• (D) Banswara and Pratapgarh

Question 107. Match the following lists :

List-I	List-II
(a) Rajpura-Dariba	(I) Copper
(b) Nathra-Ki-Pal	(II) Lead and Zinc
(c) Kho-Dariba	(III) Beryllium
(d) Bandar-Sindari	(IV) Iron ore

Select your correct answer using the codes given below :

Codes :

• (A) a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
• (B) a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
• (C) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
• (D) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I

Question 108. In Rajasthan, which of the following groups of districts having less then 100 population density in 2011?

• (A) Bikaner, Churu and Jalore
• (B) Jaisalmer, Bikaner and Barmer
• (C) Jaisalmer, Churu and Barmer
• (D) Barmer, Jodhpur and Jaisalmer

Question 109. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

List-I (Industry)	List-II (Location)
(a) Hindustan Machine Tools	(I) Gadepan
(b) White Cement	(II) Jaipur
(c) Fertilizer	(III) Ajmer
(d) Electric Metres	(IV) Gotan

Codes :

• (A) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
• (B) a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
• (C) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
• (D) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II

Question 110. On an outline map of Rajasthan 1, 2, 3 and 4 depicts the location of four irrigation projects, which one is not correctly shown on the map?

• (A) Mahi-Bajaj Sagar
• (B) Chambal
• (C) Bisalpur
• (D) Siddhmukh

Question 111. Which one of the following is not a Sanctuary in Rajasthan?

• (A) Phoolwadi-Ki-Nal
• (B) Tadgarh-Ravali
• (C) Sundamata
• (D) Keladevi

Question 112. Where ‘Rajasthan State Chemical Works’ industry is located?

• (A) Lunkaransar
• (B) Sambhar
• (C) Pachpadra
• (D) Deedwana

Question 113. Assertion (I) : Aravalli mountain range is a water dividor in Rajasthan.

Reason (II) : Desertification is restricted by the Aravalli mountain ranges.

Select your answer using the following codes :

• (A) Both (I) and (II) are true and (II) is the correct explanation of (I).
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are true but (II) is not a correct explanation of (I).
• (C) (I) is true, (II) is false.
• (D) (I) is false, (II) is true.

Question 114. Consider the following statements :

(I) In Rajasthan rainfall decreases from South and South-East to North and North-West.

(II) Arabian Sea branch of Monsoon is the main source of rainfall in Rajasthan.

(III) Western Rajasthan received rainfall only during winter season.

(IV) More than 50 percent Rajasthan is having Arid and Semi-Arid climate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (A) (I) and (II)
• (B) (I), (II) and (III)
• (C) (I), (II) and (IV)
• (D) (III) and (IV)

Question 115. Among the following, who was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

• (A) N. Madhav Rao
• (B) D. P. Khetan
• (C) Mohammad Sadullah
• (D) B. N. Rao

Question 116. Arrange the sequence in which terms related to ‘Liberty’ appear in the Preamble of the Constitution; Liberty of ………

• (A) belief, thought, expression, worship and faith
• (B) thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
• (C) worship, faith, belief, thought and expression
• (D) thought, belief, faith, worship and expression

Question 117. Consider the following statements :

(I) Principle of Harmonious construction has been adopted to give effect to both Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy as much as possible.

(II) In Minerva Mills Case, 1980 the Supreme Court has established the preference of Directive Principles mentioned in Articles 39 (b) and (c) over the Fundamental Rights mentioned in Article 14 and 19.

Select the correct code :

• (A) Only (I) is true.
• (B) Only (II) is true.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are true.
• (D) Both (I) and (II) are false.

Question 118. Match the following lists :

List-X (Presidents of India)	List-II (Electoral description)
(a) Rajendra Prasad	(I) Elected Un-opposed
(b) Zakir Hussain	(II) Counting of Second preference
(c) V. V. Giri	(III) Elected for two terms
(d) Neelam Sanjeev Reddy	(IV) Died in office

Codes :

• (A) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
• (B) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
• (C) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
• (D) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I

Question 119. In the 15^th Lok Sabha, between the two nominated members from Anglo Indian Community, one is from Kerala, and another is from :

• (A) Mizoram
• (B) Goa
• (C) Chhattisgarh
• (D) Manipur

Question 120. Consider the following statements regarding Punchhi Commission :

(I) The Commission has proposed localising Emergency provisions under Article 355 and 356

(II) Governor’s 5 years tenure should be fixed.

(III) Governor’s removal should be only by Parliament.

(IV) Appointment of the Governor should be entrusted to a committee comprising the Prime Minister, Leader of the opposition in Lok Sabha and Chief Minister of the concerned State.

Identify the correct statement/s using the codes given below :

• (A) All the (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
• (B) (II) and (IV) only
• (C) (I), (III) and (IV) only
• (D) (I) and (II) only

Question 121. “A Survey Work of Ancient sites along the lost Saraswati river” is the work of-

• (A) M. R. Mughal
• (B) Aurel Stein
• (C) Herman Goetz
• (D) V. N. Mishra

Question 122. Damman is an oranment worn in-

• (A) Finger
• (B) Hand
• (C) Ear
• (D) Nose

Question 123. Which one of the following was included in the ‘Word Heritage List’ by UNESCO in 2010 A.D.?

• (A) Keoladeo National Park
• (B) Ranthambor Fort
• (C) Kumbhalgarh
• (D) Jantar-Mantar, Jaipur

Question 124. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

• (A) Khartal – Aerophonic
• (B) Rabab – Chordophonic
• (C) Bankiya – Autophonic
• (D) Deru – Aerophonic

Question 125. The following Festivals are celebrated in Rajasthan at different times-

(I) Chhoti Teej

(II) Akha Teej

(III) Gangaur

(IV) Kajli (Badi) Teej

Their chronological order according to calendar year is-

• (A) (III), (II), (I), (IV)
• (B) (II), (I), (III), (IV)
• (C) (II), (III), (I), (IV)
• (D) (III), (I), (IV), (II)

Question 126. The coin of which princely state of Rajputana had the face of Queen Victoria and “Victoria Empress” written in English on one side and the name of Maharaja written in Nagari and Urdu on the other side-

• (A) Jodhpur
• (B) Jaipur
• (C) Bikaner
• (D) Udaipur

Question 127. In which princely state of Rajputana Azad Morcha was established?

• (A) Jodhpur
• (B) Jaipur
• (C) Kota
• (D) Bikaner

Question 128. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists-

List-I	List-II
(a) Dwarkadheesh	(I) Kota
(b) Srinathji	(II) Nathdwara
(c) Mathuradheesh	(III) Jaipur
(d) Govind Devji	(IV) Kankroli

Codes :

• (A) a-IV, b-II, c-I, d-III
• (B) a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II
• (C) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
• (D) a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II

Question 129. The following princely states of Rajputana signed treaty with East India Company in 1817-1818 A.D.-

(I) Kota

(II) Jodhpur

(III) Karauli

(IV) Udaipur

Which sequence given below is correct chronologically?

• (A) (I), (II), (III), (IV)
• (B) (III), (IV), (I), (II)
• (C) (IV), (I), (II), (III)
• (D) (III), (I), (II), (IV)

Question 130. Which one of the following statements in not correct?

• (A) The Khalsa land was directly under the control of ruler.
• (B) The jagir lands were held in hereditary possession by the jagirdars or thikanedar.
• (C) The Bhomias were given land in lieu of performing watch and ward duties in village and guarding roads.
• (D) The charnota land was under the control of ruler.

Question 131. Which of the following statements are correct about Harappan Seals?

(I) Most of the seals are square in shape.

(II) Most of the seals are made up of steatite.

(III) Some seals have only writing, but no motif.

Choose the correct answer :

• (A) (I) and (II)
• (B) (I) and (III)
• (C) (II) and (III)
• (D) (I), (II) and (III)

Question 132. Which of the following is not a component of Vedangas?

• (A) Shiksha
• (B) Vyaakarana
• (C) Chhanda
• (D) Alankaar

Question 133. The language which has not been used in Ashokan inscription, is :

• (A) Prakrit
• (B) Arabic
• (C) Greek
• (D) Roman

Question 134. Which one of the following inscriptions indicates the influence of Vasudeva cult on Indo-Greeks?

• (A) Besnagar Pillar Inscription
• (B) Sui Vihar Inscription
• (C) Rabtak Inscription
• (D) Junagarh Inscription

Question 135. In ancient India the head of the guild (shreni) was known as :

• (A) Adhipati
• (B) Jetthaka
• (C) Agrapati
• (D) Vanik

Question 136. Consider the following statements about Rajendra-I :

(I) He sent a successful military expedition in Gangetic Valley.

(II) He built a new capital at Gangaikonda Cholapuram.

(III) He defeated Mahendra V, the king of Sri Lanka.

(IV) He despatched a mission of merchants to China.

Which of the above statements are true?

• (A) (I), (II) and (IV)
• (B) (I), (III) and (IV)
• (C) (I), (II) and (III)
• (D) All of the above

Question 137. In sultanate period ‘Sondhar’ was :

• (A) A cess on land revenue
• (B) A tax levied on canal water
• (C) A special tax levied in Gangetic Doab
• (D) A loan given to peasants for the agriculture development

Question 138. The subject matter of medieval work ‘Man kauthuhal’ is :

• (A) Bangal expedition of Raja Mansingh of Amber
• (B) The collection of Ragas of Hindustani classical singing
• (C) Amusement activities of Rani Mankanwar of Nagaur
• (D) Literary puzzles

Question 139. Which amongst the following buildings are the part of Imperial Haram Sara section of Fatehpur Sikri?

(I) Jodha Bai’s Palace

(II) Panch Mahal

(III) Maryam’s House

(IV) Birbal’s House

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only (I) and (III)
• (B) Only (I) and (IV)
• (C) Only (I), (II) and (III)
• (D) All of the above

Question 140. Match List-I with List-II and choose your answer from the code given below :

List-I	List-II
(a) Murid	(I) Devotional poetry dedicated to Vithoba
(b) Murshid	(II) Sufi disciple
(c) Abhanga	(III) Sufi teacher/guide
(d) Pushti	(IV) Grace of God

Codes :

• (A) a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
• (B) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
• (C) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
• (D) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV

Question 141. Read the statements (I) and (II) and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

(I) Policy of free trade was introduced from the Charter Act of 1813.

(II) From 1813 onwards the economic policies of India were determined by the interests of the industrial bourgeoisie class of England.

Codes :

• (A) Both (I) and (II) are false.
• (B) Both (I) and (II) are true.
• (C) (I) is true, while (II) is false.
• (D) (I) is false, while (II) is true.

Question 142. Gandhiji sent an eleven points demand note to Lord Irwin before starting the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Which of the following was/were not included in it?

(I) Fifty percent reduction in land revenue and abolition of the salt tax

(II) Lowering of the rupee-sterling exchange rate

(III) Fifty percent cut in military expenditure and expenditure on civil administration

(IV) Amnesty to Bhagat Singh and Batukeshvar Dutta

Choose the correct option :

• (A) (IV)
• (B) (I) and (III)
• (C) (II)
• (D) (I) and (IV)

Question 143. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :

List-I (Highest Peak)	List-II (Country)
(a) Kilimanjaro	(I) Argentina
(b) Mt. Cook	(II) United States of America
(c) Mt. Mackinley	(III) New Zealand
(d) Aconcagua	(IV) Tanzania

Codes :

• (A) a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
• (B) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
• (C) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
• (D) a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV

Question 144. The correct sequence in descending order of the rice producing states according to percentage of total rice production of the country is :

• (A) West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Punjab
• (B) Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh
• (C) Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
• (D) Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh

Question 145. Match the following and select the correct answer using the code given below :

Iron and Steel Plant	Technical co-operation
(a) Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant	(I) Germany
(b) Rourkela Iron and Steel Plant	(II) South Korea
(c) Durgapur Iron and Steel Plant	(III) Russia
(d) Pasco Steel, Paradwip	(IV) United Kingdom

Codes :

• (A) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
• (B) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
• (C) a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
• (D) a-IV, b-II, c-I, d-III

Question 146. Assertion (I) : Coniferous forest is found in both the hemispheres between 50°-70° latitudes.

Reason (II) : Annual rainfall varies between 30-50 cm and 5°C isotherm demarcates its northern limit while 10°C (summer) delimits its southern limit.

Which one of the following is the correct choice?

• (A) (I) is correct and (II) is also correct.
• (B) (I) is correct but (II) is wrong.
• (C) (I) is wrong but (II) is correct.
• (D) (I) and (II), both are wrong.

Question 147. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below :

List-I (National Park)	List-II (State)
(a) Van Vihar	(I) Uttarakhand
(b) Valley of Flowers	(II) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Mannar	(III) Chhattishgarh
(d) Kanger	(IV) Tamil Nadu

Codes :

• (A) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
• (B) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
• (C) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
• (D) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III

Question 148. The following map shows the location of oil refineries in India as (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Identify and answer the correct sequence as given below map.

• (A) Deogarh, Jagadishpur, Nellor, Koyali
• (B) Jagadishpur, Koyali, Deogarh, Nellor
• (C) Koyali, Deogarh, Nellor, Jagadishpur
• (D) Nellor, Koyali, Jagadishpur, Deogarh

Question 149. Match the following and select the correct answer using the code given below :

Ghat	Joins
(a) Bhor Ghat	(I) Udaipur-Sirohi-Jalore
(b) Goran Ghat	(II) Mumbai with Pune
(c) Pal Ghat	(III) Nasik with Mumbai
(d) Thal Ghat	(IV) Coimbatore with Kochi

Codes :

• (A) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
• (B) a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
• (C) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
• (D) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV

Question 150. The following map shown the location of industrial regions in Japan as (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Identify and answer the correct sequence as given below the map.

• (A) Tokyo-Yokohama, Nagoya, Osaka-Kobe-Kyoto, Kitakyushu-Nagasaki
• (B) Tokyo-Yokohama, Osaka-Kobe-Kyoto, Nagoya, Kitakyushu-Nagasaki
• (C) Nagoya, Osaka-Kobe-Kyoto, Kitakyushu-Nagasaki, Tokyo-Yokohama
• (D) Kitakyushu-Nagasaki, Tokyo-Yokohama, Nagoya, Osaka-Kobe-Kyoto

Important Link

Subject	Link
RPSC RAS Pre Exam 2013 (19-11-2013) Test	Online Test
Download RPSC RAS Pre Exam Syllabus PDF	Click Here
Download RPSC RAS Pre Exam 2013 (19-11-2013) Question Paper PDF	Click Here
Download RPSC RAS Pre Exam 2013 (19-11-2013) Answer Key PDF	Click Here
RPSC Official Website	Click Here