General Information
Exam Board | Rajasthan Staff Selection Board (RSSB) |
Exam Name | Common Eligibility Test (Graduation Level) 2022/ Rajasthan CET (Graduation Level) 2022 |
Exam Date | 08-01-2023 |
Exam Phase | Third Phase (Morning Shift) |
First Answer Key issue date | 17-01-2023 |
Final Answer key issue date | 28-04-2023 |
Exam Mode | Offline |
Question paper language | Hindi & English |
Question paper type | Objective |
Total Question | 150 |
Maximum Marks | 300 |
Negative Marking | Negative marking is not applicable. |
Time | 03:00 Hours |
Note :- Except for question number 8, 25 and 98 of this question paper, the answers to all the remaining questions have been taken from the official answer key of Rajasthan Staff Selection Board. Because question number 8, 25 and 98 have been removed by Rajasthan Staff Selection Board (RSSB).
This question paper includes questions related to the following subjects :-
- History of Rajasthan and India with special emphasis on the Indian National Movement.
- History, Art, Cultural, Literature, Tradition and Heritage of Rajasthan.
- Geography of India.
- Geography of Rajasthan.
- Indian political system with special emphasis on Rajasthan.
- Economy of India.
- Economy of Rajasthan.
- Science and Technology.
- Logical reasoning and mental ability.
- Language Knowledge : General Hindi
- Language Knowledge : General English
- Knowledge of computer.
- Current Affairs.
1. Which of the following pair (Political Activist – Related Princely state) is not correctly matched ?
- (A) Mithalal Vyas – Jaisalmer
- (B) Bhupendranath Trivedi – Kota
- (C) Kishanlal Joshi – Bharatpur
- (D) Pandit Harinarayan Sharma – Alwar
2. Two statements are given below, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) –
Assertion (A) : Dadabhai Naoroji founded East India Association in London.
Reason (R) : He wanted to influence the British Public Opinion.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
- (A) A is true but R is false
- (B) R is true but a is false
- (C) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
- (D) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
3. Who was the Ruler of Bikaner who supported the British through his army for suppressing Revolt of 1857 ?
- (A) Sardar Singh
- (B) Ratan Singh
- (C) Ganga Singh
- (D) Dungar Singh
4. Under whose leadership, thousands of women participated in the conference held at Katrathal on 25th April, 1934 ?
- (A) Rama Devi
- (B) Uttama Devi
- (C) Kishori Devi
- (D) Durga Devi
5. Who among the following leader was in the Independence Movement in Bharatpur state ?
- (A) Tikaram Paliwal
- (B) Kishan Lal Joshi
- (C) Mangal Singh Sharma
- (D) Shobha Ram
6. Who brought about a compromise between Muslim League and Congress, in 1916 ?
- (A) Annie Besant
- (B) Surendranath Banerjee
- (C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
- (D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
7. Which leader of the Marwar Lok Parishad died in June 19, 1942 due to hunger strike against injustice in Jail ?
- (A) Ranchod Das Gattani
- (B) Anand Raj Surana
- (C) Bhanwar Lal Sharma
- (D) Bal Mukund Bissa
8. Morley – Minto reforms were aimed at –
(I) Promotion of education
(II) Reserved seats in Provincial Assembly for Dalits
(III) Separate electorates for Muslims
(IV) Increase in the number of members in Legislative Council at Centre
Select the correct answer from the code given below –
- (A) I, II and III
- (B) Only II
- (C) Only III
- (D) I, II, III and IV
Explanation-
9. Who among the following was the author of the book ‘Jaisalmer ka Gundaraj’ ?
- (A) Sagarmal Gopa
- (B) Hiralal Shastri
- (C) Jai Narayan Vyas
- (D) Manikya Lal Verma
10. Which among the following is related to Lord Curzon ?
- (A) Indian Council Act, 1892
- (B) Universities Act, 1920
- (C) Partition of Bengal in 1905
- (D) Government of India Act, 1909
11. Saint Haridas was the founder of ………………….. sect.
- (A) Nimbarka
- (B) Alakhiya
- (C) Niranjani
- (D) Ramsnehi
12. Who among the following is not a master of Maand singing ?
- (A) Allah Jilai Bai
- (B) Gavari Bai
- (C) Gulabo
- (D) Banno Begam
13. In which of the following tribes, the marriages named Tanna and Mor Bandhiya are prevalent ?
- (A) Sansi
- (B) Meena
- (C) Bhil
- (D) Garasia
14. In which of the following, the archaeological remains related to Buddhism are found ?
- (A) Bairath (Virat Nagar)
- (B) Madhyamika (Nagari)
- (C) Naliyasar (Sambhar)
- (D) Raidh (Tonk)
15. Where is Lok Kala Mandir located ?
- (A) Jodhpur
- (B) Kota
- (C) Udaipur
- (D) Ajmer
16. The author of ‘Beli Krishan Rukmani Ri’, was the court poet of which ruler ?
- (A) Vigraharaja IV
- (B) Maharana Kumbha
- (C) Akbar
- (D) Shah Jahan
17. Gopal Saini is related to which handicraft of Rajasthan ?
- (A) Terracotta
- (B) Blue Pottery
- (C) Wood Art
- (D) Theva Art
18. In Rajasthan, where is the first Tribal Child Hockey Academy established ?
- (A) Dungarpur
- (B) Kota
- (C) Udaipur
- (D) Bhilwara
19. According to Col. Tod, Meena’s originally belong to which of these places ?
- (A) Abu Mountain ranges
- (B) Kali Khoh Mountain ranges
- (C) Mukundara Hills
- (D) Kali Ghati Mountain ranges
20. Who has built the Shiv Temple of Badoli (Kota) ?
- (A) Toramana
- (B) Mihirkula
- (C) Bhoj Parmar
- (D) Bhoj Pratihar
21. “Illa na deni, aapni, halriya hulraaye.
Poot sikhave palne, maran badai maaye. “
The above lines are taken from which book ?
- (A) Vansh Bhaskar
- (B) Veer Satsai
- (C) Kanhad-de-Prabandh
- (D) Prithviraj Raso
22. Match the following –
Folk Deity | Birth place |
---|---|
(I) Gogaji | (a) Santhu |
(II) Pabuji | (b) Dadreva |
(III) Hadbuji | (c) Kohu |
(IV) Fattaji | (d) Bhundol |
Code :
- (A) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
- (B) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
- (C) I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-a
- (D) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d
23. Which (Cattle fair and District) is not correctly matched ?
- (A) Chandrabhaga Cattle Fair – Jhalawar
- (B) Gogamedi Cattle Fair – Hanumangarh
- (C) Shivratri Cattle Fair – Sawai Madhopur
- (D) Ramdev Cattle Fair – Nagaur
24. Which writer named the books after the name of Bikaner Maharaja Anoop Singh ?
- (A) Bhav Bhatta
- (B) Lochan
- (C) Hriday Narayan Dev
- (D) Pundrik Vitthal
25. Which of the following statement is not true about ‘Kalibangan Civilization’ ?
- (A) Camel bones have been discovered at Kalibangan.
- (B) Kalibangan has provided evidence of the first recorded earthquake.
- (C) Luigi Pio Tessitori, an Italian Indologist found the Kalibangan site.
- (D) Pre Harappan fire altars have been discovered.
Explanation-
26. Who is famous with the name of Narsingh in Rajasthan ?
- (A) Sant Ramcharanji
- (B) Kavi Durlabhji
- (C) Sant Charandas ji
- (D) Sant Rajjab ji
27. Which song of goddess was sung by the ‘Kanfate Jogi’ with Damru and Sarangi ?
- (A) Jeen Mata
- (B) Nagnechi Mata
- (C) Sheetala Mata
- (D) Sakrai Mata
28. What is the name of the cremation site of Mewar royal family ?
- (A) Kaga
- (B) Gatore
- (C) Mahasatya
- (D) Bada Bagh
29. Which of the following region of Rajputana was ruled by the Varik dynasty ?
- (A) Badnaur
- (B) Bayana
- (C) Alwar
- (D) Ajmer
30. Which one of the following (Folk drama – Place) is not matched correctly ?
- (A) Nautanki – Bharatpur, Dholpur
- (B) Tamasha – Jaipur
- (C) Turra Kalangi – Marwar
- (D) Rammat – Bikaner, Jaisalmer
31. Ognia, Angotia, Surliya ornaments are worn –
- (A) on head
- (B) on wrist
- (C) in ears
- (D) on feet
32. When did Maharana Pratap make Chavand his capital ?
- (A) 1580
- (B) 1576
- (C) 1582
- (D) 1585
33. To which age does the artistic splendour of Abhaneri and Rajoregarh belong ?
- (A) Gurjar – Pratihar
- (B) Chauhan
- (C) Guhil – Sisodia
- (D) Rathore
34. Who wrote the book named ‘Hammir Hath’ ?
- (A) Jodhraj
- (B) Chandrashekhar
- (C) Dalpat
- (D) Keshavdev
35. From the following battles, choose the correct order from first to last according to the year they were fought –
(I) Battle of Gagron
(II) Battle of Sarangpur
(III) Battle of Bayana
(IV) Battle of Mavli
Choose the correct option –
- (A) II, IV, III, I
- (B) II, I, III, IV
- (C) I, II, III, IV
- (D) I, III, II, IV
36. The first UDAY (Utkrisht Double Decker Air-Conditioned Yatri) Express Train runs between –
- (A) Delhi and Kalka
- (B) Bengaluru and Coimbatore
- (C) Chennai and Visakhapatnam
- (D) Visakhapatnam and Vijayawada
37. Malaj Khand is associated with which mineral production ?
- (A) Lignite
- (B) Copper
- (C) Iron Ore
- (D) Diamond
38. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established on-
- (A) 12th July, 1986
- (B) 12th July, 1978
- (C) 12th July, 1982
- (D) 12th July, 1992
39. Which among the following (State – Coal region) is correctly matched ?
- (A) Madhya Pradesh – Ramgarh
- (B) Odisha – Sambalpur
- (C) West Bengal – Betul
- (D) Jharkhand – Sarguja
40. Which one of the following is the correct descending order of the coffee producing states of India ?
- (A) Karnataka > Kerala > Andhra Pradesh > Tamil Nadu
- (B) Karnataka > Tamil Nadu > Kerala > Andhra Pradesh
- (C) Karnataka > Kerala > Tamil Nadu > Andhra Pradesh
- (D) Andhra Pradesh > Tamil Nadu > Kerala > Karnataka
41. Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary is situated at –
- (A) Karnataka
- (B) Kerala
- (C) Tamil Nadu
- (D) Andhra Pradesh
42. As on August 2022, how many declared wetlands are there in India ?
- (A) 72
- (B) 75
- (C) 48
- (D) 41
43. Which type of forests are found in western slopes of the Western Ghat ?
- (A) Alpine
- (B) Savanna
- (C) Tropical Evergreen
- (D) Monsoon
44. Which state of India has highest potentiality of wind energy ?
- (A) Gujarat
- (B) Tamil Nadu
- (C) Rajasthan
- (D) Karnataka
45. On which river is the Salal Project located ?
- (A) Chenab
- (B) Ravi
- (C) Vyas
- (D) Jhelum
46. Ratanada airport provides services to –
- (A) Jodhpur
- (B) Kota
- (C) Bikaner
- (D) Udaipur
47. As per Census- 2011, the district having least rural sex ratio in Rajasthan was-
- (A) Jaisalmer
- (B) Dholpur
- (C) Tonk
- (D) Barmer
48. The construction of Bisalpur Dam was completed in which year ?
- (A) 1989
- (B) 1992
- (C) 1996
- (D) 1999
49. Which river basin of Rajasthan is in second position in terms of water availability ?
- (A) Banas Basin
- (B) Mahi Basin
- (C) Luni Basin
- (D) Sabarmati Basin
50. Assertion (A) : Teak trees are mostly found in southern part of Rajasthan.
Reason (R) : The teak can bear extreme cold and frost.
- (A) Both A and B are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
- (B) A is false but R is true
- (C) A is true but R is false
- (D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
51. In which part of Rajasthan the ‘Entisols’ soil is found ?
- (A) Western
- (B) Southern
- (C) South Eastern
- (D) Eastern
52. Which (Mineral – Mining Area) is not correctly matched ?
- (A) Dolomite – Bajla-Kabra
- (B) Fluorite – Mando-Ki-Pal
- (C) Leas & Zinc – Rampura-Agucha
- (D) Rock phosphate – Barodia
53. Akal Wood Fossil Park is located in which of the following district ?
- (A) Jaisalmer
- (B) Bundi
- (C) Pali
- (D) Rajsamand
54. Giral lignite thermal power project is located in which village ?
- (A) Samdari (Barmer)
- (B) Ramsar (Ajmer)
- (C) Thumbli Village (Barmer)
- (D) Sivana (Jalore)
55. As per Koppen’s climate classification, which type of climate is found in Dungarpur and Banswara district ?
- (A) BWhw
- (B) BShw
- (C) Cwg
- (D) Aw
56. From which tree ‘Katha’ is extracted in Rajasthan ?
- (A) Khejri
- (B) Palas
- (C) Khair
- (D) Dhok
57. Which among the following (River – Associated District) is not correctly matched ?
- (A) Dai – Ajmer
- (B) Banganga – Jaipur
- (C) Kakni – Jaisalmer
- (D) Vatrak – Banswara
58. The major producing region of soybean in Rajasthan is –
- (A) Semi-Arid
- (B) Hadoti Plateau
- (C) Mahi Basin
- (D) Eastern Plains
59. Which are the highest population districts of Rajasthan, according to Census – 2011 (Descending order) ?
- (A) Jaipur – Jodhpur – Alwar – Nagaur
- (B) Jaipur – Jodhpur – Nagaur – Alwar
- (C) Jodhpur – Jaipur – Alwar – Nagaur
- (D) Alwar – Jaipur – Nagaur – Jodhpur
60. Where in Rajasthan oil refinery is being established ?
- (A) Bikaner
- (B) Jalore
- (C) Jaisalmer
- (D) Barmer
61. When was President Rule imposed in Rajasthan due to unclear majority in the Assembly Elections ?
- (A) 1977
- (B) 1980
- (C) 1967
- (D) 1992
62. Who among the following is not in the Selection Committee of the Chairman and members of the Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission ?
- (A) Governor
- (B) Chief Minister
- (C) Home Minister
- (D) Leader of the Opposition
63. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
- (A) Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Area (PESA) Act was implemented on 24th December 1996.
- (B) The PESA Act was enacted on the recommendation of Dileep Singh Bhuria Committee.
- (C) PESA Act is applied to 9 states of Schedule 5.
- (D) One of the objectives of the Act is to protect and conserve the traditions and customs of tribal communities.
64. When was the Revenue Board established in Rajasthan ?
- (A) 1947
- (B) 1949
- (C) 1951
- (D) 1955
65. Identify the Chairman of the Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission, who also served as the Judge of the Supreme Court of India ?
- (A) Kanta Kumari Bhatnagar
- (B) Gopal Krishna Vyas
- (C) Saiyed Saghir Ahmad
- (D) Nagendra Kumar Jain
66. Which of the following statement is not true ?
- (A) Rajasthan can have 30 Ministers including the Chief Minister.
- (B) All the Ministers of Rajasthan are Cabinet Ministers.
- (C) Cabinet have important departments.
- (D) Presently there is no Deputy Minister in the Government of Rajasthan.
67. Which of the following statement is not true ?
- (A) The post of District Collector was created by Warren Hastings in 1772.
- (B) In district, the District Collector functions as Chief Protocol Officer.
- (C) In Article 233 of the Indian Constitution, the word ‘District Judge’ has been mentioned.
- (D) Ramsay MacDonald called the Collector as the Institutional Charisma.
68. High Court of Rajasthan was inaugurated by Rajpramukh Sawai Mansingh on –
- (A) August 29th, 1949
- (B) January 28th, 1950
- (C) March 27th, 1951
- (D) January 28th, 1952
69. Who among the following was not elected in Rajya Sabha elections 2022 in Rajasthan ?
- (A) Sh. Ghanshyam Tiwari
- (B) Sh. Pramod kumar
- (C) Sh. Mukul Balkrishna Wasnik
- (D) Sh. Subhash Chandra
70. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
- (A) 243 R – Mention of the composition of Municipal Corporations
- (B) 243 S – Constitution and composition of Wards Committees
- (C) 243 ZE – Composition of Metropolitan Planning Committee
- (D) 243 ZC – Composition of District Planning Committee
71. Human Poverty Index (HPI) measures the deprivation as a composite index of –
- (A) longevity, nutrition and knowledge
- (B) knowledge, basic needs and standard of living
- (C) longevity, knowledge and standard of living
- (D) longevity, standard of living and sanitation
72. Planning Commission has been replaced by which of the given Institution ?
- (A) NITI Aayog
- (B) Finance Commission of India
- (C) Investment Commission of India
- (D) National Development Council
73. Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) –
(I) It is a non-government, private limited company.
(II) It is a not for profit company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
- (A) I only
- (B) II only
- (C) Both I and II
- (D) Neither I nor II
74. Which one of the following is Not included in the Agriculture and Allied Services of Indian Economy ?
- (A) Forestry
- (B) Food Processing
- (C) Fishery
- (D) Logging (trees)
75. An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of certain crops, which are –
- (A) rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds
- (B) rice and wheat
- (C) rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and vegetables
- (D) rice, wheat and pulses
76. Which country got the maximum export from India in the year 2021-22 ?
- (A) China
- (B) USA
- (C) UAE
- (D) Brazil
77. As per Census 2011, which state of India has the highest sex ratio ?
- (A) Kerala
- (B) Tamil Nadu
- (C) Chhattisgarh
- (D) Andhra Pradesh
78. With reference to Indian Economy, consider the following –
(I) Public debt
(II) Public revenue
(III) Open market operations
(IV) Bank rate
Which of the above is/are component/s of Monetary Policy ?
- (A) I only
- (B) II only
- (C) I, II and III
- (D) III and IV
79. Fiscal Policy in India is formulated by –
- (A) The Finance Ministry
- (B) The Planning Commission
- (C) The Securities and Exchange Board of India
- (D) The Reserve Bank of India
80. What is not correct with respect to GSTIN ?
- (A) It is 15 digit and letter code.
- (B) Its First 2 digits are the state code.
- (C) It contains the PAN Card number of the individual or business.
- (D) It is a 16 digit and letter code.
81. In which year ‘Chief Minister Raj Neer Scheme’ was declared in Rajasthan ?
- (A) 2019
- (B) 2020
- (C) 2021
- (D) 2015
82. HPCL Rajasthan Refinery Ltd. is a joint venture between Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) and government of Rajasthan with an equity participations of –
- (A) 72 % and 28 % respectively
- (B) 68 % and 32 % respectively
- (C) 56 % and 44 % respectively
- (D) 74 % and 26 % respectively
83. At which level of Panchayati Raj a “Sathin” is selected as an ‘Honorary Woman Worker’ for women development programmes ?
- (A) Zila-Parishad
- (B) Panchayat-Samiti
- (C) Block level
- (D) Gram-Panchayat
84. From which district of Rajasthan, the Heli-Born survey technique for ground water management has been launched ?
- (A) Bharatpur
- (B) Jodhpur
- (C) Kota
- (D) Jaipur
85. In Rajasthan the major districts of maize cultivation are –
- (A) Baran, Jalore and Pratapgarh
- (B) Chittorgarh, Banswara and Bundi
- (C) Banswara, Pali and Sirohi
- (D) Baran, Kota and Jhalawar
86. Where will the ‘Khadi Plaza’ be constructed by Rajasthan Khadi and Village Industries Board ?
- (A) Jodhpur
- (B) Jaipur
- (C) Bikaner
- (D) Udaipur
87. Which of the following will get irrigation benefits from the Parvan Mega project ?
- (A) 535 villages of Bundi, kota and Baran districts
- (B) 637 villages of Jhalawar, Baran and Kota districts
- (C) 637 villages of Jhalawar, Bundi and Kota districts
- (D) 535 villages of Pratapgarh, Jhalawar and Kota districts
88. What is the sectoral contribution of the Gross State Value added by the industry sector in Rajasthan at the basic constant (2011-12) prices in the year 2021-22 ?
- (A) 28.15 %
- (B) 24.80 %
- (C) 26.34 %
- (D) 32.20 %
89. ‘Utsav Bhoj Yojana’ in Rajasthan is related to –
- (A) Indira Rasoi Yojna
- (B) Food in Night Sheltor
- (C) Community Marriage Scheme
- (D) Mid-day Meal Yojana
90. Labour Bureau, Shimla releases Industrial Labour Consumer Price Index (Base year-2016) for which centers in Rajasthan from September-2020 ?
- (A) Alwar, Bhilwara, Jaipur
- (B) Ajmer, Jaipur, Bhilwara
- (C) Jaipur, Jodhpur, Bikaner
- (D) Alwar, Ajmer, Jaipur
91. Who among the following was honoured with the Nari Shakti Puraskar on International Women’s Day 2022 ?
- (A) Usha Sharma
- (B) Batool Begam
- (C) Vasundhara Raje
- (D) Mamta Chouhan
92. Who among the following ‘Padma Award- 2022’ recipient is related to Rajasthan ?
- (A) Shakuntala Choudhary
- (B) Sheesh Ram
- (C) Chandraprakash Dwivedi
- (D) Vandana Kataria
93. In which of these countries is the G-20 summit proposed for the year 2023 ?
- (A) Indonesia
- (B) China
- (C) Vietnam
- (D) India
94. Who was appointed as the new Chief Minister of Tripura in May 2022 ?
- (A) Eknath Shinde
- (B) Biplab Kumar Deb
- (C) Dr. Manik Saha
- (D) N. Biren Singh
95. In January 2022, Central Government’s ‘PM WANI Yojana’ started in which district of Rajasthan ?
- (A) Jaipur
- (B) Sikar
- (C) Jodhpur
- (D) Pratapgarh
96. The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports announced the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratan Award for the year 2022 to ‘Achanta Sharath Kamal’, he is related to which sports ?
- (A) Badminton
- (B) Chess
- (C) Lawn tennis
- (D) Table tennis
97. Which is the rank of India in the recently released Global Hunger Index 2022 ?
- (A) 102nd
- (B) 107th
- (C) 109th
- (D) 110th
98. Which of the following Indus Valley Civilization site is included in UNESCO World Heritage list in July 2022 ?
- (A) Balathal
- (B) Kalibanga
- (C) Bholavira
- (D) Mohenjo-Daro
Explanation-
99. Which of the following cities will host the 2025 World Athletics Championships ?
- (A) Paris
- (B) Tokyo
- (C) Shanghai
- (D) Budapest
100. There are a total of 75 Ramsar sites in India by August 2022, which state has the maximum number of Ramsar sites ?
- (A) Uttar Pradesh
- (B) Himachal Pradesh
- (C) Tamil Nadu
- (D) Madhya Pradesh
101. Page fault occurs, when –
- (A) the page is present in memory
- (B) the deadlock occurs
- (C) the page is not present in memory
- (D) the buffering occurs
102. Which of the following statement is false ?
- (A) A digitizer is an output device.
- (B) You may find pre-printed MICR characters on bank cheques.
- (C) Trackball and Joystick are pointing devices like mouse.
- (D) OCR stands for Optical Character Recognition.
103. Consider following statements, in context of MS-Word- 2019 keys for moving around documents –
(I) Pressing END takes you to the end of the document.
(II) Pressing PgDn takes you down one screen.
(III) Pressing Ctrl + Home takes you to the top of the document.
Which of the above statements are true ?
- (A) I and II
- (B) II and III
- (C) I and III
- (D) I, II and III
104. Which command will be used to display the format cells dialog box in MS-Excel ?
- (A) Ctrl + F
- (B) Ctrl + 1
- (C) Ctrl + 2
- (D) Ctrl + D
105. Second generation computers were developed during –
- (A) 1649 to 1670
- (B) 1959 to 1965
- (C) 1965 to 1970
- (D) 1970 to 1990
106. Choose the set of true statements from the following –
(I) Vinegar is an aqueous solution of 5% – 8% acetic acid.
(II) Hydrolysis of fat gives glycerol and carboxylic acid.
(III) Teflon is used as solvent.
(IV) The chemical formula of washing powder is CaOCl2.
- (A) I, II
- (B) II, III
- (C) III, IV
- (D) I, IV
107. Read the following two statements –
(I) Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered as a subset of Information Technology (IT).
(II) The ‘right to use’ a piece of software is termed as copyright.
Which of the above mentioned statement(s) is/are correct ?
- (A) Both I and II
- (B) Neither I nor II
- (C) II only
- (D) I only
108. The resistance of a copper wire 200m long is 21Ω . If its thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its specific resistance is around –
- (A) 1.6 × 10-8 Ω-m
- (B) 1.2 × 10-8 Ω-m
- (C) 1.4 × 10-8 Ω-m
- (D) 1.8 × 10-8 Ω-m
109. ………………… is an example of physical change.
- (A) Burning of candle
- (B) Making of curd from milk
- (C) Blackening of silverware
- (D) Dissolving of sugar in water
110. Which of the given enzymes is responsible for the digestion of milk protein ?
- (A) Rennin
- (B) Pepsin
- (C) Trypsin
- (D) Erepsin
111. Apis florea is related to which of the following ?
- (A) Honey Bee
- (B) Silk warm
- (C) Lac insect
- (D) Termite
112. Which one of the following is a viral disease in animals ?
- (A) Blue tongue disease
- (B) Milk fever
- (C) Anthrax
- (D) Johne’s disease
113. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below –
List-I | List-II |
---|---|
(I) Hydrogen bomb | (a) Fission |
(II) Atom bomb | (b) Fusion |
(III) Binding energy | (c) Critical mass |
(IV) Nuclear reactor | (d) Mass defect |
Code :
- (A) I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c
- (B) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
- (C) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c
- (D) I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-d
114. What is formed in the reaction of sodium hydroxide with zinc ?
- (A) Zinc hydroxide and hydroxide gas
- (B) Zinc hydroxide and sodium
- (C) Sodium Zincate and hydrogen gas
- (D) Sodium Zincate and water
115. What is the percentage of Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) that is captured by the plants ?
- (A) 2-5%
- (B) 2-15%
- (C) 5-10%
- (D) 2-10%
116. If Sohan, while selling two goats at the same price, makes a profit of 10% on one goat and suffers a loss of 10% on the other, then which of the following is true ?
- (A) He makes no profit and no loss
- (B) He makes a profit of 1%
- (C) He suffers a loss of 1%
- (D) He suffers a loss of 2%
117. Average of all even numbers between 320 and 350 is –
- (A) 335
- (B) 332
- (C) 330
- (D) 325
118. Area of a rectangular field is 300 sq. meter. If length of its diagonal is 25 meter, then the perimeter of this field is-
- (A) 70 meter
- (B) 80 meter
- (C) 90 meter
- (D) 84 meter
119. If the simple interest for 5 years be equal to 20% of the principal amount, then it will be equal to the principal amount –
- (A) in 25 years
- (B) in 20 years
- (C) in 15 years
- (D) in 10 years
120. If the income of x is 10% more than that of y and the income of y is 20% less than that of z, then the income of x, y and z respectively are in the ratio –
- (A) 10 : 9 : 7
- (B) 11 : 10 : 8
- (C) 22 : 20 : 25
- (D) 22 : 18 : 25
121. In a certain code language, “479” means “fruit is sweet”, “248” means “very sweet voice” and “637” means “eat fruit daily”. Code for “is” is equal to –
- (A) 4
- (B) 7
- (C) 9
- (D) 6
122. Two different positions of a die is shown below. Which number will appear on the face opposite to 5 ?
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- (A) 1
- (B) 2
- (C) 3
- (D) 6
123. How many triangles are there in the given figure ?
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- (A) 14
- (B) 15
- (C) 16
- (D) 17
124. ‘A’ walks 10 m towards East and then 10 m to his right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he now from his starting point ?
- (A) 10m
- (B) 15m
- (C) 20m
- (D) 5m
125. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row. E and F are in the centre, A and B are at the ends, C is sitting on the left of A. Who is sitting on the right of B ?
- (A) D
- (B) F
- (C) E
- (D) A
126. If ‘CEG’ is written as ‘TSR’ and ‘FHJ’ is written as ‘QPO’, then ‘IKM’ is written as –
- (A) NOL
- (B) NOM
- (C) NML
- (D) MLN
127. Umang said to Uma – “You are wife of the grandson of my mother”. Who is Umang to Uma ?
- (A) Father
- (B) Husband
- (C) Father-in-law
- (D) Grandfather
128. Here, a statement is followed by two arguments I and II are given. You have to decide which of the argument/ arguments is/are a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Statement : Should income tax be evaded by people ?
Arguments :
(I) Yes, Taxes are excessively high.
(II) No, it will hamper the welfare programmes.
- (A) If only argument I is strong
- (B) If only argument II is strong
- (C) If both I and II are strong
- (D) If neither I nor II is strong
129. The next term of the following number series is –
2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ………… ?
- (A) 210
- (B) 252
- (C) 258
- (D) 270
130. If (+) means (×), (÷) means (+), (×) means (-) and (-) means (÷) then the value of
124 ÷ 32 – 8 + 2 × 11 is equal to –
- (A) 120
- (B) 121
- (C) 132
- (D) 144
131. किस विकल्प के शब्द दो से अधिक उपसर्गों से निर्मित है ?
- (A) अध्यापक, पारितोषिक
- (B) प्राचार्य, सहानुभूति
- (C) दुरध्यवसाय, समुदाहरण
- (D) प्रतिवाद, अज्ञानता
132. संधि की दृष्टि से संगत विकल्प का चयन कीजिए –
- (A) विधे + इका = विधायिका
- (B) स्त्री + उचित = स्त्रीयोचित
- (C) गुरू + उपदेश = गुरूपदेश
- (D) अधः + पतन = अधःपतन
133. सुमेलित कीजिए –
(I) मूल स्वर | (a) ख, छ, फ, स |
(II) दीर्घ स्वर | (b) आ, ई, ऊ, ऐ |
(III) अल्पप्राण व्यंजन | (c) अ, इ, उ, ऋ |
(IV) अघोष व्यंजन | (d) य, र, ल, व |
- (A) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
- (B) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
- (C) I-c, II-b, III-d, IV-a
- (D) I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c
134. अशुद्ध वाक्य का चयन कीजिए –
- (A) देश शहीदों का सदा आभारी रहेगा।
- (B) थोड़े समय बाद छात्र वापस लौट आए।
- (C) कृष्ण ने कंस का वध किया।
- (D) यह कार्य कैसे संभव है ?
135. किस विकल्प के सभी शब्द ‘अर्जुन’ के पर्यायवाची हैं ?
- (A) धनंजय, पार्थ, कौन्तेय
- (B) माधव, केशव, पीताम्बर
- (C) अर्णव, उदधि, नदीश
- (D) रजनी, यामिनी, निशि
136. समास – विग्रह की दृष्टि से असंगत विकल्प चुनिए –
- (A) देशाटन – देश में अटन
- (B) जीवनभर – पूरे जीवन
- (C) लाज़वाब – ज़वाब के साथ
- (D) भोजनार्थ – भोजन के लिए
137. ‘अल्पविराम’ चिन्ह के प्रयोग के संबंध में कौन-सा कथन असंगत है ?
- (A) भावातिरेक में शब्दों पर बल देने के लिए।
- (B) उपवाक्यों को अलग करने के लिए।
- (C) किसी तथ्य को स्पष्ट करने का संकेत करने के लिए।
- (D) अभिवादन, समापन, पता, दिनांक आदि में सम्मान सूचक अभिवादन के बाद में।
138. किस विकल्प में उचित विलोम युग्म का प्रयोग हुआ है ?
- (A) जटिल – कुटिल
- (B) कर्कश – मधुर
- (C) संधि – समास
- (D) अनिवार्य – आवश्यक
139. सार्वनामिक विशेषण का प्रयोग किस विकल्प में हुआ है ?
- (A) थोड़ा घी लेकर आइए।
- (B) किताब के कुछ पृष्ठ शेष हैं।
- (C) वह घर अभी बना है।
- (D) साठ लोग समारोह में आ रहे हैं।
140. निम्न में से किस वाक्य में सजातीय क्रिया का प्रयोग हुआ है?
- (A) सूखे पत्ते हवा में उड़ रहे हैं।
- (B) टहलना स्वास्थ्य के लिए अच्छा है।
- (C) मातृभूमि के लिए मरना श्रेष्ठ है।
- (D) पुलिस ने चोर को बड़ी मार मारी।
Direction (141 to 143) : Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions-
But before I could be inspired by these amazing people, I had to cleanse my feed. I know my weaknesses: just last week, Facebook memories reminded me of a pizza party I’d had two years ago and I ended up ordering a chicken dominator, with garlic breadsticks and an jalapeno cheese dip. So much for Day One of Couch to 5K training. I stayed right on that couch. So far I’ve unfollowed Buzzfeed Tasty, TasteMade (even their adorable Tiny Kitchen) and several people who have the enviable advantage of being able to eat as much as they want and not put on weight. By my calculations, dark chocolate is healthy. So I’m still following Earth Loaf. Pascati and Mason & Co.
When I finally found a gym I liked with the best trainers I have had, I unabashedly shared my workouts every day. From shying away from full-length pictures, I reached a point where I could share videos of myself deadlifting and doing squats with a barbell across my shoulders. It gave me accountability.
141. Which of the following is a page related to chocolate ?
- (A) Earth Loaf
- (B) TasteMade
- (C) Buzzfeed Tasty
- (D) Tiny Kitchen
142. Which of the following word in the passage means ‘very desirable’ ?
- (A) inspired
- (B) enviable
- (C) adorable
- (D) cleanse
143. The word with the meaning opposite to ‘shamefully’ in the passage is –
- (A) shying
- (B) enviable
- (C) weaknesses
- (D) unabashedly
144. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase –
The winning team decided to go for the jugular in the last quarter of the match.
- (A) forfeit the match
- (B) attack all out
- (C) give reserve players a chance
- (D) give easy opportunities to the opposite team
145. What is ‘Pseudonym’ in letter writing ?
- (A) Name of the Editor
- (B) Legal name
- (C) Fictitious name
- (D) Real name
146. Fill in the blank space with the correct determiner –
……………………. friends he has are sincere.
- (A) The little
- (B) None
- (C) The few
- (D) Much
147. Match the sentences in the Column (A) with appropriate prepositions in Column (B) –
Column (A) (Sentences) | Column (B) (Prepositions) |
---|---|
(I) The train met ………….. an accident. | (a) for |
(II) Such an idea would never occur ……………… me. | (b) in |
(III) He has been in this office ……………….. a year. | (c) with |
(IV) Wise people do not believe ………………. superstitions. | (d) to |
- (A) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
- (B) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
- (C) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
- (D) I-d, II-a, III-c, IV-b
148. Fill in the blank space with the correct phrasal verb from the given options –
The meeting was ………………………… because of bad weather.
- (A) called back
- (B) called off
- (C) call back
- (D) called in
149. Choose the correct English translation of the given sentence –
मैं अपने कमरे में प्रवेश करने से पहले अपने जूते और मोजे उतार देता हूँ।
- (A) I take out my shoes and socks before I enter my room.
- (B) I take off my shoes and socks while entering my room.
- (C) I take off my shoes and socks before entering my room.
- (D) I take out my shoes and socks at the time of entering my room.
150. Choose the most appropriate option –
Ashin said, “Shall I ever win a gold medal ?” (Change into Indirect Speech)
- (A) Ashin asked if he shall ever have won a gold medal.
- (B) Ashin said that shall he ever won a gold medal.
- (C) Ashin exclaimed if he shall ever win a gold medal.
- (D) Ashin wondered if he would ever win a gold medal.