RPSC Deputy Jailor Exam, 2024 (13-07-2025) Solved Question Paper-II (GK & GS)

General Information

Exam Board	Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC)
Exam Name	Deputy Jailor Competitive Examination, 2024
Post Name	Deputy Jailor in Department of Jail
Exam Date	13-07-2025 (Sunday)
Exam Time	02:30 PM to 05:30 PM (Evening Shift)
First/Model Answer Key issue date	05-08-2025 (Tuesday)
Final Answer key issue date	–
Question Paper	Second
Subject	G.K. and G.S. (General Knowledge & General Science)
Exam Mode	Offline
Question paper language	Hindi & English
Question paper type	Objective
Total Question	150
Maximum Marks	200
Negative Marking	1/3 part of the mark(s) of each question will be deducted for each wrong answer.
Time	03:00 Hours

This question paper includes questions related to the following subjects :-

1. History, Art, Culture, Literature, Tradition and Heritage of Rajasthan
2. Indian History : Ancient & Medieval Period, Modern Period (from early 19th century to 1964)
3. Geography of India and Rajasthan
4. Indian Constitution, Political System & Governance
5. Political and Administrative System of Rajasthan
6. Prison Reforms, Prison Acts and Manuals
7. Basic Concepts of Economics
8. Indian Economic Development and Planning
9. Economy of Rajasthan
10. Science and Technology
11. Reasoning and Mental Ability
12. Current Affairs : (Rajasthan, National level, International Level)

1. Who among the following composed the text ‘Prakrit Prakash’?

• (A) Rajshekhar
• (B) Vararuchi
• (C) Udhyottan Suri
• (D) Vishakhadutta

2. Which of the following Sultans entrusted the responsibility of income assessment to Khwaja Husamuddin Junaid?

• (A) Iltutmish
• (B) Alauddin Khalji
• (C) Firozshah Tughlaq
• (D) Sikandar Lodi

3. The name of which god was inscribed on the royal orders of Vijayanagara?

• (A) Vitthal
• (B) Murugan
• (C) Ayyappa
• (D) Virupaksha

4. Which of the following Bhakti Saints divided South India into 74 parts and appointed Acharyas to propagate his ideas there?

• (A) Shankaracharya
• (B) Vallabhacharya
• (C) Ramanuj
• (D) Ramanand

5. Which of the following temples is not located in the temple group of Khajuraho?

• (A) Satya Dhara
• (B) Kunwar Math
• (C) Ganthai
• (D) Dhumar Len

6. ‘Hindi Association’ was the predecessor of which of the following revolutionary organisations?

• (A) Abhinav Bharat
• (B) Young Bengal
• (C) Gadar Party
• (D) Veda Samaj

7. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(I) In 1948, a Linguistic Provinces Commission was setup under the chairmanship of S.K. Dhar.

(II) The new state of Andhra Pradesh was inaugurated on 1 October, 1953.

(III) In 1966, Bombay Province was divided into Gujarat and Maharashtra.

Codes :

• (A) Only I
• (B) I and II
• (C) II and III
• (D) I, II and III

8. Which of the following range is not a part of the lesser Himalayas?

• (A) Dhauladhar
• (B) Mussoorie
• (C) Zaskar
• (D) Pir Panjal

9. Dalma and Porhat hills are located in

• (A) Malwa plateau
• (B) Shillong plateau
• (C) Chotanagpur plateau
• (D) Uplands of Bundelkhand

10. Which among the following book is not written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee?

• (A) Kopalkundla
• (B) Anandmath
• (C) Mrinalini
• (D) Betal Panchavimeati

11. In India which of the following type of forest is found in north-eastern part of peninsular and along the foothills of Himalaya and Shiwaliks?

• (A) Tropical moist deciduous forest
• (B) Tropical moist evergreen forest
• (C) Tropical dry deciduous forest
• (D) Temperate forest

12. Arabica, Robusta and Liberika varieties are related to which crop?

• (A) Tobacco
• (B) Tea
• (C) Coffee
• (D) Rubber

13. In which type of soil following characteristics are found in India?

Clayey, deep, impermeable and rich in lime, iron, magnesium and aluminium.

• (A) Red soil
• (B) Black soil
• (C) Alluvial soil
• (D) Laterite soil

14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :

List-I (Local Wind/Storms)	List-II (States)
(a) Kalbaisakhi/Norwester	(I) Karnataka
(b) Mango showers	(II) West Bengal-Assam
(c) Cherry Blossom	(III) Tamil Nadu-Andhra Pradesh
(d) Loo	(IV) Punjab to Bihar

Codes :

• (A) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
• (B) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
• (C) a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
• (D) a-IV, b-II, c-III, d-I

15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :

List-I (Paper Industry Centre)	List-II (State)
(a) Nepanagar	(I) Maharashtra
(b) Ballarpur	(II) Odisha
(c) Titagarh	(III) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Brajrajnagar	(IV) West Bengal

Codes :

• (A) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
• (B) a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III
• (C) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
• (D) a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II

16. In which years Ganga and Yamuna Action Plan were launched respectively?

• (A) 1981-1985
• (B) 1985-1993
• (C) 1992-1997
• (D) 1995-1999

17. Which region is not included in the biodiversity hotspots of India?

• (A) The Himalayas
• (B) The Western Ghats
• (C) The Nicobar Islands
• (D) The Eastern Ghats

18. Which among the following is the highest peak of Northern Aravali range in Rajasthan?

• (A) Raghunathgarh
• (B) Taragarh
• (C) Khau
• (D) Bhairach

19. From which of the following mines Indian Iron and Steel Company gets iron ore?

• (A) Kemangundi mine
• (B) Noamundi mine
• (C) Kiriburu mine
• (D) Guna mine

20. Which river is not a tributary of Kali Sindh river?

• (A) Parwan
• (B) Niwaj
• (C) Ahu
• (D) Sagi

21. Which among the following places of Rajasthan receive maximum mean annual rainfall?

• (A) Jhalawar
• (B) Banswara
• (C) Kota
• (D) Mt. Abu

22. Which among the following types of forest is found on southern highland of state in Sawai Madhopur, Chittorgarh, Kota, Baran and Jhalawar districts?

• (A) Khair forest
• (B) Dry Teak forest
• (C) Palash forest
• (D) Sub-tropical hill forest

23. As per 2019 livestock census, which of the following group of districts has highest number of buffaloes in Rajasthan?

• (A) Alwar, Ajmer, Bhilwara
• (B) Jaipur, Dausa, Karauli
• (C) Bharatpur, Tonk, Nagaur
• (D) Jaipur, Alwar, Bharatpur

24. Which among the following statement is not correct with reference to “Hadoti Plateau”?

• (A) This plateau spans across Kota, Baran, Bundi and Jhalawar districts.
• (B) This plateau is an extension of the Malwa plateau.
• (C) The average height of this plateau is 600 metres.
• (D) This plateau doesn’t have surface uniformity everywhere.

25. What is known as ‘Kaolin’?

• (A) Silica sand
• (B) Fire clay
• (C) China clay
• (D) Dolomite

26. Which among the following districts of Rajasthan had the same decadal population growth rate (2001-2011)?

• (A) Ajmer, Bharatpur
• (B) Karauli, Pali
• (C) Jaipur, Jalore
• (D) Tonk, Dausa

27. Which of the following pair/s is/are correctly matched?

(Industrial Park)	(Place)
(a) Stone Park	Bishnoda (Dholpur)
(b) Hosiery Park	Banswara
(c) Agrofood Park	Boranada (Jodhpur)
(d) Textile Park	Silora (Kishangarh)

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :

Codes :

• (A) Only b
• (B) a and b
• (C) a, b and c
• (D) a, c and d

28. Consider the following statements :

(I) Rajasthan has been divided into 9 Agro-climatic zones.

(II) Maize, Groundnut and Cotton are kharif crops in Rajasthan.

(III) Rajasthan ranks first in Soyabean production in the country.

Select correct answer using codes given below :

Codes :

• (A) I and III
• (B) II and III
• (C) Only II
• (D) I, II and III

29. Consider the following statements regarding preventive detention :

(I) Article 20 authorises parliament to make a law providing for preventive detention, laying down the circumstances, the classes of cases, the maximum period of detention.

(II) Preventive detention cannot be authorized by law to exceed two months unless an advisory board finds sufficient cause.

Choose the correct statement/s given above :

• (A) Only I is correct.
• (B) Only II is correct.
• (C) Both I and II are correct.
• (D) Neither I nor II is correct.

30. Consider the following statements regarding ‘The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019’ :

(I) It was notified on 12^th December, 2019.

(II) It came into force w.e.f. 4^th January, 2020.

(III) The Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2024, were notified on 11^th April, 2024 to grant Indian citizenship to eligible persons under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

• (A) Only I
• (B) Only I and II
• (C) Only II and III
• (D) I, II and III

31. In which of the following sessions of the Constituent Assembly of India, the decision regarding ‘continued membership of India in the Commonwealth’ was ratified?

• (A) Seventh
• (B) Eighth
• (C) Tenth
• (D) Eleventh

32. The requirement that a person must be a resident of that state to be elected as a representative in the Rajya Sabha was abolished in 2003-

• (A) By Constitutional Amendment
• (B) By order of the President
• (C) By a law made by Parliament
• (D) By order of the Election Commission of India

33. Consider the following statements regarding President’s Address :

(I) The Assembly of members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha to hear the President’s Address under Article 87 (1) of the Constitution of India is deemed to be neither a joint sitting of both the Houses nor a sitting of Lok Sabha nor of Rajya Sabha.

(II) When the President addresses the Houses under Article 87 (1), he functions as limb of Parliament.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only I is correct.
• (B) Only II is correct.
• (C) Both I and II are correct.
• (D) Neither I nor II is correct.

34. The Central Vigilance Commission presents a report every year to which of the following regarding the work done by the Commission?

• (A) Prime Minister
• (B) President
• (C) Parliament
• (D) Home Minister

35. With which of the following Article of the Constitution, the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 is directly concerned?

• (A) Article 39
• (B) Article 39 A
• (C) Article 43 A
• (D) Article 43 B

36. Among the following Governors (Acting) of Rajasthan, who has had the longest tenure?

• (A) Justice Jagatnarayan
• (B) Justice Vedpal Tyagi
• (C) Justice K. D. Sharma
• (D) Justice P. K. Banerji

37. How many times did Bharatiya Janata Party form the government in Rajasthan without achieving the clear majority on its own in Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?

• (A) Once
• (B) Twice
• (C) Thrice
• (D) Never

38. As per the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994 how many minimum meetings of the Gram Sabha is required in a financial year?

• (A) One
• (B) Two
• (C) Three
• (D) Four

39. Assertion (A) : In the view of Rajni Kothari, it is not politics that gets caste-ridden; it is caste that gets politicized.

Reason (R) : In his view, the operation of competitive politics has drawn caste out of its apolitical context.

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

40. The Rajasthan Information Commission (Management) Regulations, 2007, framed under Section 15 (4) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, came into force on which date?

• (A) 12 May, 2007
• (B) 24 July, 2007
• (C) 2 October, 2007
• (D) 14 November, 2007

41. Consider the following statements regarding definition provided in the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Up-Lokayuktas Act, 1973 :

(I) “Minister” means a member (including Chief Minister) of the Council of Ministers, by whichever name called, for the State of Rajasthan, that to say, a Minister, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.

(II) “Officer” means a person appointed to a public service or post in connection with the affairs of the State of Rajasthan.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only I is correct.
• (B) Only II is correct.
• (C) Both I and II are correct.
• (D) Neither I nor II is correct.

42. Who among the following makes recommendations to the President as to the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of the State to supplement the resources of the municipalities in Rajasthan on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State?

• (A) The Finance Commission of India
• (B) NITI Aayog
• (C) The State Government
• (D) The Governor

43. Consider the following statements regarding the recommendations of All India Committee on Jail Reform (1980-83) :

(I) The subjects of prisons and allied institutions should be included in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.

(II) Public participation in prevention of crime and treatment of offenders must be made a part of our national policy on prisons.

(III) An all India Service to be called the Indian Prisons and Correctional Service should be constituted.

Choose the correct statements from the above :

• (A) Only I and II
• (B) Only I and III
• (C) Only II and III
• (D) I, II and III

44. Which of the following committees has recommended that prisoners sentenced to less than one year should be kept in open camps and prisoners may be allowed to stay in these camps with their families?

• (A) Mulla Committee
• (B) Pakwasa Committee
• (C) Krishna Iyer Committee
• (D) Kapur Committee

45. How many members excluding chairperson are there in the Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission in accordance with the provisions of the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006?

• (A) 4
• (B) 2
• (C) 1
• (D) 3

46. According to the Prison Act, 1894, which of the following acts are declared to be prison-offences when committed by a prisoner?

(I) Wilfully disabling himself from labour

(II) Contumaciously refusing to work

(III) Wilful damage to prison property

(IV) Feigning illness.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only I and II are correct.
• (B) Only I, III and IV are correct.
• (C) Only I, II and III are correct.
• (D) I, II, III and IV are correct.

47. Consider the following statements regarding the Rajasthan Prisons (Amendment) Rule, 2021 :

(I) No inmate shall be selected for cooking on the basis of his caste or religion.

(II) No tradesman shall be chosen on the basis of his caste or religion.

(III) Any member with a criminal background may be classified as a habitual offender, subject to the discretion of the government.

Choose the correct statements from the ones given above :

• (A) Only I and II
• (B) Only I and III
• (C) Only II and III
• (D) I, II and III

48. Match List-I with List-II regarding the chapter and their content in Model Prison Manual 2016 and choose the correct option by using the codes given below :

List-I (Chapter)	List-II (Content)
(a) X	(I) Inspection of prisons
(b) XII	(II) Prisoners sentenced to death
(c) XVI	(III) Legal aid
(d) XXVIII	(IV) Repatriation of prisoners

• (A) a-IV, b-II, c-III, d-I
• (B) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
• (C) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
• (D) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II

49. Which of the following projects is a national initiative in India aimed at computerizing and integrating all the activities related to prison and prisoner management in the jail?

• (A) The ePrisons Project
• (B) The eKara Bazaar Project
• (C) The eSmart Prisons Project
• (D) The eJail Project

50. When was the “The Prisoners (Attendance in Courts) Act” enacted by the Parliament to provide for the attendance in courts of persons confined in prisons for obtaining their evidence or for answering a criminal charge?

• (A) 20 September, 1955
• (B) 30 October, 1958
• (C) 15 May, 1963
• (D) 11 January, 1967

51. According to the Model Prison Manual 2016, on which of the following reasons prisoners may be transferred from one prison to another?

(I) To be nearer to his/her home district.

(II) On medical grounds.

(III) For providing essential services.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only II and III are correct.
• (B) Only II is correct
• (C) Only I and III are correct.
• (D) I, II and III are correct.

52. Which of the following Acts have been reviewed by the Home Ministry, and their relevant provisions have been incorporated in the Model Prison and Correctional Services Act, 2023?

(I) The Prisons Act, 1894

(II) The Prisoners Act, 1900

(III) The Transfer of Prisoners Act, 1950

(IV) The Repatriation of Prisoners Act, 2003

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only I, II and III
• (B) Only II, III and IV
• (C) Only I, III and IV
• (D) I, II, III and IV

53. According to the Model Prison Manual 2016, high risk offenders are classified in how many number of categories?

• (A) 3
• (B) 5
• (C) 7
• (D) 9

54. What is India’s share in global manufacturing as per the Economic Survey 2024-25?

• (A) 2.8 percent
• (B) 5.2 percent
• (C) 1.7 percent
• (D) 3.8 percent

55. In India, which state has reported maximum Female Labour Force Participation Rate in the year 2023-24 as per Periodic Labour Force Survey?

• (A) Sikkim
• (B) West Bengal
• (C) Tamil Nadu
• (D) Kerala

56. Which one of the following statements is not correct as per Economic Survey 2024-25?

• (A) India is largest producer of cement in the world.
• (B) India is a net importer of chemicals and chemical products.
• (C) India’s electronic market represents 4 percent of the global market.
• (D) India is a leading producer of jute.

57. Which of the following are the three largest oilseeds producing states in descending order in India in the year 2023-24?

• (A) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
• (B) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Gujarat
• (C) Rajasthan, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh
• (D) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat

58. Consider the following statements regarding Consumer Price Index (CPI) in India :

(I) Four types of consumer price indices are being calculated every month in India.

(II) All the four indices are calculated and released by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistical Programme Implementation (MOSPI), New Delhi.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only I is correct.
• (B) Only II is correct.
• (C) Both I and II are correct.
• (D) Neither I nor II is correct.

59. Which of the following are limitations of anti-inflationary monetary policy?

(I) Commercial Banks Portfolio Adjustment

(II) Growth of Non-Bank Financial Intermediaries

(III) Risk of destabilisation

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only I and II are correct.
• (B) Only II and III are correct.
• (C) Only III and I are correct.
• (D) All I, II and III are correct.

60. What was the projected infrastructure investment target of the ‘National Investment Pipeline’ from FY 2020 to FY 2025 in India?

• (A) ₹ 111 lakh crore
• (B) ₹ 58 lakh crore
• (C) ₹ 93 lakh crore
• (D) ₹ 128 lakh crore

61. What is the maximum rate of GST prescribed by law on supply of goods and services in India?

• (A) 18 percent
• (B) 20 percent
• (C) 28 percent
• (D) 40 percent

62. Which of the following is the income earned by the factors in the form of wages, profits, rent, interest etc. within the domestic territory of a country?

• (A) Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost
• (B) Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost
• (C) Net National Product at Factor Cost
• (D) Gross National Product at Factor Cost

63. Which one of the following external funding agencies is providing financial assistance for Rajasthan Climate change Response and Ecosystem Services Enhancement Project (CRESEP)?

• (A) World Bank
• (B) Asian Development Bank
• (C) Japan International Co-operation Agency (JICA)
• (D) New Development Bank

64. Effective Revenue Deficit equals :

• (A) Revenue deficit – Grants-in-Aid for creation of capital assets
• (B) Primary deficit + interest payments
• (C) Revenue deficit – interest payment
• (D) Capital expenditure + Grants-in-Aid for creation of capital assets

65. Under the National Education Policy-2020, which of the following program seeks to enable every child to achieve essential reading, writing and mathematical skills by the end of Class II by 2026-27?

• (A) NIPUN Bharat Mission
• (B) Early Childhood Care Mission
• (C) Integrated Child Development Scheme
• (D) Gyan Sankalp Mission

66. To ensure pure food commodities accessible to all consumers, which of the following campaign was launched by Rajasthan Government on 15^th Feb. 2024?

• (A) Har Ghar Shudh Aahar
• (B) Shudh Aahar Sampurn Poshan
• (C) Shudh Aahar Milavat Par War
• (D) Shudh Aahar Har Ghar Swasthya

67. ‘Per Drop More Crop’ (PDMC) initiative implemented by the government to enhance access to irrigation facilities, is a component of which of the following program?

• (A) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)
• (B) Micro Irrigation Fund (MIF)
• (C) Rain-fed Area Development Program (RADP)
• (D) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY)

68. In Rajasthan, the Svamitva Yojana is being implemented by

(I) Panchayati Raj Department

(II) Survey of India Department

(III) Revenue Department

Choose the right code.

Codes :

• (A) Only I
• (B) Only I and II
• (C) Only II and III
• (D) All I, II and III

69. Amrit 2.0 Scheme has been launched by the Government of India on 1^st Oct. 2021. Under the funding pattern of this scheme, Central Government share in cities with population less than 1 lakh will be

• (A) 25.0 percent
• (B) 33.33 percent
• (C) 50.0 percent
• (D) 60.0 percent

70. Rural Non-Farm Development Agency was established in November, 1995 by the Government of Rajasthan. Its aim is

• (A) promoting self-employment for artisan families.
• (B) promoting wage employment for artisan families.
• (C) promoting self and wage employment for SC/ST and BPL families.
• (D) providing concessional finance and training facilities for employment generation in rural areas.

71. Which one of the following pair is not correct?

Crop – Position of Rajasthan in India in 2022-23

• (A) Bajra – First
• (B) Groundnut – Third
• (C) Soyabean – Third
• (D) Rape-seed & Mustard – First

72. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Rajasthan’s Integrated Clean Energy Policy 2024 aims to achieve a target of 3000 kilo tonnes per annum green hydrogen generation by 2030.

Statement-II : Rajasthan Vidyut Prasaran Nigam (RVPN) is the implementing agency for energy conservation and efficiency programmes in Rajasthan.

In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :

• (A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
• (B) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
• (C) Both Statements I and II are true.
• (D) Both Statements I and II are false.

73. What is the target for Green Hydrogen generation by 2030 in Rajasthan under Rajasthan’s Integrated Clean Energy Policy 2024?

• (A) 1500 kilo tonnes per annum
• (B) 2000 kilo tonnes per annum
• (C) 3000 kilo tonnes per annum
• (D) 2500 kilo tonnes per annum

74. Which one of the following sub-sectors of Agriculture and allied sector contributed most in the Rajasthan’s Gross State Value Added in the year 2024-25 at current prices?

• (A) Crops
• (B) Livestock
• (C) Forestry & Logging
• (D) Fishing

75. Consider the following statements regarding Magra Area Development Scheme of Rajasthan :

(I) The district of Bhilwara is covered under Magra Area Development Scheme.

(II) The areas under Magra Area Development Scheme can also be covered under Tribal Area Development.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only I is correct.
• (B) Only II is correct.
• (C) Both I and II are correct.
• (D) Both I and II are incorrect.

76. Which of the following statements are correct related to Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM)?

(I) It is a flagship poverty alleviation programme, launched in 2012.

(II) It is one of the world’s largest initiatives to improve the livelihoods of the poor.

(III) The programme leverages community resources (social capital) to build institutions and promote livelihoods.

Codes :

• (A) Only I and II
• (B) Only II and III
• (C) Only I and III
• (D) All I, II and III

77. Consider the following statements regarding agriculture sector of Rajasthan :

(I) Agriculture and allied sectors are contributing 26.92 percent to the Rajasthan’s Gross State Value Added (GSVA) in 2024-25 at current prices which is higher than the all India contribution of 19.8 percent as per the advance estimate.

(II) The vision of transforming agriculture focuses on leveraging advanced technologies to enhance productivity and efficiency in Rajasthan.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• (A) Only I is correct.
• (B) Only II is correct.
• (C) Both I and II are correct.
• (D) Neither I nor II is correct.

78. The cause of Reverberation is :

• (A) Total internal reflection
• (B) Repeated reflection
• (C) Diffraction
• (D) Multiple refraction

79. Milk sugar is :

• (A) Glucose
• (B) Galactose
• (C) Lactose
• (D) Sucrose

80. As per the analysis of district-wise per capita income at current prices in the year 2023-24, which of the following district is on the top in Rajasthan?

• (A) Alwar
• (B) Bhilwara
• (C) Jaipur
• (D) Ajmer

81. Which of the following is not an input device in computer?

• (A) Scanner
• (B) Plotter
• (C) Keyboard
• (D) Touch pads

82. Programming Languages for Artificial Intelligence (AI) are :

(I) Python, (II) Prolog, (III) Java, (IV) C++

Select the correct option from codes given below :

• (A) I and II only
• (B) I and III only
• (C) I, II and III only
• (D) I, II, III and IV

83. A basic communication system consists of :

(I) Transmitter, (II) Information source, (III) User of information, (IV) Channel, (V) Receiver

Choose the correct sequence in which these are arranged in a basic communication system :

• (A) I, II, III, IV, V
• (B) II, I, IV, V, III
• (C) II, IV, I, III, V
• (D) II, V, I, IV, III

84. Which of the following are exothermic processes?

(I) Reaction of water with quick lime

(II) Dilution of sulphuric acid

(III) Evaporation of water

(IV) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)

Choose the correct option :

• (A) I and II
• (B) II and III
• (C) I and IV
• (D) III and IV

85. Consider the following statements for the- “YUVIKA 2025” organized by the ISRO :

Statement (I) : This program was organized for school children.

Statement (II) : This program was to encourage students for STEM based research.

• (A) Both statements I and II are true.
• (B) Only statement I is true.
• (C) Only statement II is true.
• (D) Both statements I and II are false.

86. Which of the following frequencies will be suitable for communication using sky waves?

• (A) 10 kHz
• (B) 15 MHz
• (C) 2 GHz
• (D) 1000 GHz

87. Match the Restriction Endonuclease used in genetic engineering and Bacterial Source of the same :

Restriction Endonuclease	Bacterial Source
(a) EcoRI	(I) Bacillus amylofaciens
(b) HaeIII	(II) Escherichia coli
(c) HpaI	(III) Haemophilus aegyptius
(d) BamHI	(IV) Haemophilus parainfluenzae

• (A) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
• (B) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
• (C) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
• (D) a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III

88. Which is not a Ballistic Missile?

• (A) BrahMos
• (B) K-15 (Sagarika)
• (C) Prithvi-II
• (D) Dhanush

89. Which of the following laboratories of DRDO have collaborated in the development of Multi Influence Ground Mine (MIGM)?

• (A) Centre for Fire Explosive and Environment Safety, Delhi and Defence Laboratory, Jodhpur
• (B) Centre for Fire Explosive and Environment Safety, Delhi and High Energy Materials Research Laboratory, Pune
• (C) High Energy Materials Research Laboratory, Pune and Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory, Chandigarh
• (D) Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory, Chandigarh and Defence Laboratory, Jodhpur

90. Which tissue of human body acts as a thermal insulator?

• (A) Cartilage
• (B) Adipose tissue
• (C) Areolar tissue
• (D) Tendon

91. Tooth decay starts, when the pH of the mouth is :

• (A) lower than 6.5
• (B) more than 7.5
• (C) lower than 5.5
• (D) more than 6.5

92. Which of the following blood group has both surface antigens A and B on the RBCs?

• (A) AB
• (B) O
• (C) A
• (D) B

93. ‘Injaz’ is the name of the world’s first cloned _________ .

• (A) Camel
• (B) Pig
• (C) Sheep
• (D) Goat

94. Given below are the pairs of pathogens and the diseases caused by them. Which out of these is not a matching pair?

• (A) Virus – Common cold
• (B) Salmonella – Typhoid
• (C) Microsporum – Filariasis
• (D) Plasmodium – Malaria

95. The vaccine for Hepatitis-B Birth dose administered through which route?

• (A) Intramuscular
• (B) Intradermal
• (C) Subcutaneous
• (D) Oral

96. Which of the following is/are biodegradable item/items?

(I) Wood, (II) Leather, (III) Plastic, (IV) Fruit peels

• (A) All four I, II, III and IV
• (B) Only I and IV
• (C) Only I, II and IV
• (D) Only II

97. Which of the following statements in incorrect for Bio-gas?

• (A) It is an excellent fuel as it contains upto 75% methane.
• (B) It burns with smoke and leaves residue like ash.
• (C) Its heating capacity is high.
• (D) Bio-gas is also used as source of light.

98. The bacteria that are commonly associated with foodborne infections in chicken or eggs are :

• (A) Salmonella
• (B) Bacillus
• (C) Staphylococcus
• (D) Clostridium

99. Crocodile Conservation Reserve is located at which of the following places?

• (A) Ramgarh, Jaipur
• (B) Ranthambore, Sawai Madhopur
• (C) Tatgarh, Rajsamand
• (D) Baghdarrah, Udaipur

100. Which of the following is used in genetically engineered insulin?

• (A) r-RNA
• (B) t-RNA
• (C) r-DNA
• (D) m-RNA

101. The historic convention on Biological Diversity held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is known as :

• (A) CITES Convention
• (B) The Earth Summit
• (C) G-16 Summit
• (D) MAB Programme

102. Magra, formerly known as Bikaneri; also known as Bikaneri Chokhla and Chakri is a breed of :

• (A) Sheep
• (B) Goat
• (C) Cow
• (D) Buffalo

103. Statement (I) : Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of UV radiation acting on oxygen molecule.

Statement (II) : The decrease in ozone has been linked to synthetic chemicals like Chlorofluoro-carbons (CFCs).

• (A) Both statements (I) and (II) are corrrect.
• (B) Both statements (I) and (II) are incorrect.
• (C) Statement (I) is correct, but (II) is incorrect.
• (D) Statement (I) is incorrect, but (II) is correct.

104. Food & Agriculture Organization (FAO) has its headquarters at

• (A) Geneva
• (B) Paris
• (C) Rome
• (D) Washington

105. Science Park and Regional Science Centre has been setup in Jaipur under the Department of Science and Technology, Rajasthan. The implementing agency of this project is

• (A) National Council of Science Museum, Kolkata
• (B) Science City, Kolkata
• (C) Nehru Science Centre, Mumbai
• (D) Visvesvaraya Industrial and Technological Museum (VITM), Bangalore

106. Central Electronic Engineering Research Institute (CEERI) is located at

• (A) Tonk
• (B) Pilani
• (C) Jodhpur
• (D) Bikaner

107. How many students were awarded fellowship for the year 2024-25 under the KARYA scheme for students studying basic science in government institutions (university and college) of Rajasthan?

• (A) 48
• (B) 42
• (C) 38
• (D) 32

108. Next term of the following number series will be :

2, 8, 6, 8, 10, 8, 14, 8, ……

• (A) 12
• (B) 16
• (C) 18
• (D) 20

109. The one-horned rhinoceros is specific to which of the following sanctuary?

• (A) Bhitarkanika
• (B) Bandipur
• (C) Kaziranga
• (D) Corbett Park

110. How many times in a day of 24 hrs, are both the hands (minute and hour) of a clock in a straight line but opposite in direction?

• (A) 18
• (B) 20
• (C) 22
• (D) 24

111. Point K is 5 m to the East of point M. Point J is 5 m to the South of point K. Point G is 10 m to the West of point J. In which direction is point M from point G?

• (A) South-West
• (B) North
• (C) North-East
• (D) East

112. In a row of boys, Aamir is 16^th from the left end and Vikas is 18^th from the right end. Gagan is 11^th from Aamri towards the right end and 3^rd from Vikas towards the right end. How many boys are there in the row?

• (A) 41
• (B) 40
• (C) 39
• (D) 38

113. Read the following information and give the answer :

If P * Q means “P is father of Q”

P – Q means “P is sister of Q”

P + Q means “P is mother of Q”

and P ÷ Q means “P is brother of Q”

Which of the following statements are true for the expression S – T + V ÷ Y * Z based upon the above relations?

(I) Z is grandson of T.

(II) S is aunty of Y.

(III) Z is daughter of Y.

(IV) T is grandmother of Z.

• (A) Only I and III
• (B) Only II and IV
• (C) Only I, II and IV
• (D) I, II, III and IV

114. A mixture of milk and water weighs 60 litres which contains 10% water. How much water should be added in this mixture so that water may be 25% of new mixture?

• (A) 6 litre
• (B) 12 litre
• (C) 18 litre
• (D) 15 litre

115. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest for 2 years at 8% annual interest rate on a certain sum is ₹ 120. The principal amount is

• (A) ₹ 25,000
• (B) ₹ 37,500
• (C) ₹ 75,000
• (D) ₹ 18,750

116. By selling a ball for ₹ 39, a shopkeeper gets 30% profit. At what price should he sell it to get 40% profit?

• (A) ₹ 22
• (B) ₹ 32
• (C) ₹ 42
• (D) ₹ 52

117. The area of a rhombus is 216 cm² and its one of the diagonals is 24 cm. Then its perimeter is-

• (A) 36 cm
• (B) 48 cm
• (C) 60 cm
• (D) 64 cm

118. If \frac{3-2\sqrt{5}}{6-\sqrt{5}}=a+b\sqrt{5}, where a and b are rational numbers, then the values of a and b are respectively-

• (A) \frac{8}{31},\frac{9}{31}
• (B) \frac{8}{31},\frac{-9}{31}
• (C) \frac{-8}{31},\frac{9}{31}
• (D) \frac{-8}{31},\frac{-9}{31}

119. Indian Railways is constructing the country’s first RDSO (Research, Design and Standard Organisation) dedicated test track for comprehensive testing of high speed rolling stock between Gudha-Thathana Mithri, under which of the following divisions of Indian Railways?

• (A) Kota
• (B) Jodhpur
• (C) Jaipur
• (D) Ajmer

120. In which of the following villages of Baran district, 39.17 hectares of land has been allotted to the Rajasthan Vidyut Prasaran Nigam Limited by the State Government for 765 kV GSS?

• (A) Sarkanya
• (B) Sorsan
• (C) Dhoti
• (D) Dara

121. Under the provisions of the Rajasthan Logistics Policy-2025, number of members in the Project Evaluation Committee (including Chairman) is

• (A) 8
• (B) 9
• (C) 10
• (D) 11

122. Consider the following statements with reference to the schemes of the Government of Rajasthan :

(I) Under the Laado Protsahan Yojana, on the birth of a girl child in a poor family, a saving bond of ₹ 1.5 lakh will be given instead of ₹ 1 lakh.

(II) Self-help group members falling under Lakhpati Didi category will be provided loan up to ₹ 1 lakh at 2.0 percent interest rate instead of 2.5 percent.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (II) is correct.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct.

123. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Minister of Commerce and Industry, Government of India has notified the expansion of the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Start-ups (CGSS) to increase capital mobilization for start-ups, under which the ceiling on guarantee cover per borrower has been increased from 10 crore rupees to :

• (A) 12 crore rupees
• (B) 15 crore rupees
• (C) 17 crore rupees
• (D) 20 crore rupees

124. Consider the following statements with reference to SUFLAM-2025 :

(I) SUFLAM means Start-up Forum for Aspiring Startups and Mentors.

(II) SUFLAM-2025 aims to strengthen the food processing sector by promoting innovation, sustainability and entrepreneurship through targeted initiatives.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (II) is correct.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct.

125. Consider the following statements regarding Khelo India Youth Games-2025 :

(I) Rajasthan secured third position in Khelo India Youth Games-2025.

(II) Rajasthan won 24 gold, 12 silver and 24 bronze medals in Khelo India Youth Games-2025.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (II) is correct.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct.

126. Which is the first state in India to notify the categorization of scheduled castes?

• (A) Kerala
• (B) Uttar Pradesh
• (C) Telangana
• (D) Jharkhand

127. Consider the following statements regarding first Khelo India Beach Games conducted in May, 2025 :

(I) These games were hosted by Goa.

(II) Total eight hundred and eleven athletes took part in six medal sports in these games.

(III) Nagaland secured third place in the medal tally.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only (I) and (II) are correct.
• (B) Only (II) and (III) are correct.
• (C) Only (I) and (III) are correct.
• (D) Only (III) is correct.

128. Consider the following statements with reference to NITI Aayog :

(I) The 10^th Governing Council Meeting of NITI Aayog was organized in May, 2025 at New Delhi in the Chairmanship of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

(II) The theme of this year is ‘Viksit Bhart @2047 : Role of Team India’.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only statement (I) is correct.
• (B) Only statement (II) is correct.
• (C) Both statement (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Neither statement (I) nor (II) is correct.

129. Consider the following statements regarding recently signed agreement between Government of India and International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) :

(I) The Government of India shall provide budgetary support of ₹ 100 crore to IBCA for creating a corpus, building infrastructure and meeting recurring expenditure for five years from 2024-25 to 2029-30.

(II) IBCA was launched by Narendra Modi on 9^th April, 2023 at Mysuru.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (II) is correct.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct.

130. Consider the following statements related to Operation Brahma :

(I) Operation Brahma was launched on 1^st April, 2025 by the Government of India.

(II) Operation Brahma was launched in the aftermath of the devastating earthquake in Myanmar for rendering assistance to Myanmar.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (II) is correct.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct.

131. Consider the following statements regarding BIMSTEC :

(I) The first BIMSTEC Youth Summit was organized in New Delhi in February 2025.

(II) The theme of the first BIMSTEC Youth Summit was ‘Youth as a Bridge for Exchange within BIMSTEC’.

Choose the correct statement/s from the ones given above :

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (II) is correct.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct.

132. Who among the following has won the Laureus World Sportswoman of the Year Award-2025?

• (A) Simone Biles
• (B) Sifan Hassan
• (C) Faith Kipyegon
• (D) Aitana Bonmati

133. Consider the following statements regarding BRICS :

(I) Brazil assumed the BRICS Chairship (Presidency) on 1^st April, 2025.

(II) Brazil Presidency will focus on two priorities : The Global South Cooperation and BRICS Cooperation and BRICS Partnerships for Social Economic and Environmental Development.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (II) is correct.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct.

134. Who among the following performed an ‘Ekashashthi – ratra yagna’ after the victory against western Sakas?

• (A) Malawa
• (B) Yodheya
• (C) Sibi
• (D) Matsya

135. Who among the following Guhil ruler is known as ‘Shiladitya’?

• (A) Kalabhoja
• (B) Aparajit
• (C) Mahendra II
• (D) Bappa Rawal

136. Maldeo was ready to give which area for Humayun’s help during Jogithirtha talk?

• (A) Bikaner
• (B) Jaisalmer
• (C) Jogithirtha
• (D) Phalodi

137. Which among following text is not authored by Mandan during the rule of Maharana Kumbha?

• (A) Rupavatar
• (B) Vastusar
• (C) Vastushastra
• (D) Ekalingashray

138. The ruler of which of the following states administered an oath to his feudal nobles during his Gaya pilgrimage to not resort to female infanticide (kanyavadh) in 1837?

• (A) Jodhpur
• (B) Jhalawar
• (C) Bikaner
• (D) Bundi

139. Which of the following prehistoric sites is associated with Mahasati dune?

• (A) Bagore
• (B) Balathal
• (C) Ahar
• (D) Ganeshwar

140. Which of the following Bhil leaders did not participate in the Banswara State Prajamandal movement?

• (A) Kubla Bhagat
• (B) Deva
• (C) Bhima
• (D) Deepa

141. Who led the students movement at Bharatpur in 1920-21?

• (A) Gopilal Yadav, Jugal Kishore Chaturvedi
• (B) Kalicharan Sharam, Pyarelal Gupta
• (C) Vijay Singh, Hariji
• (D) Ram Narayan Choudhry, Manikyalal Verma

142. Which temple among following is located at Rewasa village of Sikar district?

• (A) Harshnath temple
• (B) Jeenmata temple
• (C) Shyam tempe
• (D) Shakambhari mata temple

143. Which among the following is not Aeroponic instrument?

• (A) Rawaj
• (B) Morchang
• (C) Nad
• (D) Mashak

144. In the 20^th century, the work of public awareness was done in Bharatpur through which of the following institutions?

• (A) Aachar Sudharini Sabha
• (B) Hindi Sahitya Samiti
• (C) Sarvhitkarini Sabha
• (D) Harijan Sewa Samiti

145. Which of the following folk deities is worshipped as the protector of the land?

• (A) Bhomia ji
• (B) Jujhar ji
• (C) Bhabhuta Siddh
• (D) Kheda ji

146. Samdaria Hilor, celebrated in Sirohi district, is related to which of the following festivals?

• (A) Holi
• (B) Teej
• (C) Gangaur
• (D) Hindola

147. Narayan Singh Bhati (1930-1994) was the Director of which of the following institutions?

• (A) Rajasthani Shodh Sansthan, Choupasani Jodhpur
• (B) Rajasthani Bhasha Sahitya Sanskriti Academy, Bikaner
• (C) Rupayan Sansthan, Borunda
• (D) Lok Sanskriti Shodh Sansthan Nagar-Sri Churu

148. Frequently used symbol of ‘wheel’ represents which motif of Mahatma Buddha’s life?

• (A) First sermon of the Buddha
• (B) Enlightenment of Buddha
• (C) Represent Mahaparinirbana of Buddha
• (D) Birth of Buddha

149. Which among the following Pallava rulers assumed the titles of ‘Chitrakarppuli’ (Tiger among painters) and ‘Chettakkari’ (Temple Builder)?

• (A) Mahendra Varman I
• (B) Narsingh I
• (C) Mahendra Verman II
• (D) Parmeshwar Varman I

150. Who among the following is the author of Raj Vilas?

• (A) Jodhraj
• (B) Veerbhan
• (C) Kushallabh
• (D) Maan