Rajasthan Police Sub Inspector Exam, 2025 (06-04-2026) Question Paper-II (GK & GS)

General Information

Exam Board	Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC)
Exam Name	Sub Inspector/Platoon Commander Combined Competitive Examination, 2025 (RPSC SI)
Recruitment Department	Home (Group-1) Department, Rajasthan Government
Exam Date	06-04-2026
Exam Time	03.00 PM to 05.00 PM
Model Answer Key issue date	07-04-2026
Final Answer key issue date	–
Exam Mode	Offline
Question paper language	Hindi
Question paper type	Objective
Subject	General Knowledge & General Science
Total Question	100
Maximum Marks	200
Negative Marking	1/3
Time	02:00 Hours

This question paper includes questions related to the following subjects :-

1. History, Art, Culture, Literature, Tradition & Heritage of Rajasthan
2. Indian History
3. Geography of World and India
4. Geography of Rajasthan
5. Indian Constitution, Political System & Governance
6. Political and Administrative System of Rajasthan
7. Economic Concepts and Indian Economy
8. Economy of Rajasthan
9. Science & Technology
10. Reasoning & Mental Ability
11. Current Affairs

Solved Question Paper

1. Which is not a correct match?

Paper Industry Centre – State

• (A) Salem – Tamil Nadu
• (B) Nagpur – Maharashtra
• (C) Dalmianagar – Bihar
• (D) Sangli – Madhya Pradesh

2. Consider the following statements about the Red Soil of India and choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(I) It is alkaline and is low in humus.

(II) It is deficient in lime, phosphate and manganese.

(III) It is suitable for the growth of pulses, tobacco and oilseeds.

(IV) It is mainly found in Western Tamil Nadu, parts of Karnataka and Southern Maharashtra.

Codes :

• (A) Only (I) and (II) are correct.
• (B) (II), (III) and (IV) are correct.
• (C) (I), (III) and (IV) are correct.
• (D) Only (III) and (IV) are correct.

3. Arrange the following peaks of Aravalli in correct North to South order as per their location:

(I) Achalgarh, (II) Bhairach, (III) Todgarh, (IV) Kho

Codes :

• (A) II, III, I, IV
• (B) I, III, IV, II
• (C) II, IV, III, I
• (D) III, I, IV, II

4. Kalahandi and Koraput manganese deposit areas are located in which State?

• (A) Madhya Pradesh
• (B) Karnataka
• (C) Andhra Pradesh
• (D) Odisha

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below:

List-I (Minerals)	List-II (Mining Area in Rajasthan)
(a) Emerald	(I) Rajmahal
(b) Fluorite	(II) Belka Pahar
(c) Garnet	(III) Kalaguman
(d) Calcite	(IV) Mando-ki-Pal

Codes :

• (A) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
• (B) a-IV, b-II, c-III, d-I
• (C) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
• (D) a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV

6. ‘Mixed Red and Black’ soil is found mainly in Rajasthan in:

• (A) Bhilwara and Chittorgarh
• (B) Barmer and Balotra
• (C) Ajmer and Tonk
• (D) Nagaur and Jhunjhunu

7. Which among the following is/are correctly matched?

	Industry	Location
(I)	Rajasthan State Salt Works	Pachpadra
(II)	Saint-Gobain Glass Factory	Bhiwadi
(III)	Rajasthan Explosives and Chemicals Ltd.	Kapasan
(IV)	Chambal Fertilizers and Chemicals Ltd.	Gadepan

Codes :

• (A) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
• (B) (I), (II) and (IV)
• (C) Only (II) and (III)
• (D) Only (IV)

8. Among the following, in which census year urban population of Rajasthan was lowest?

• (A) 1981
• (B) 1951
• (C) 1961
• (D) 1971

9. Which one is not correctly matched?

Conservation Reserve – District

• (A) Hamirgarh – Bhilwara
• (B) Wadakheda – Ajmer
• (C) Beed Muhana – Jaipur
• (D) Mahseer – Udaipur

10. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935:

• (A) His Majesty, represented by the Governor General, was an organ of Federal Legislature.
• (B) The Upper House of Federal Legislature was named as Council of State.
• (C) Governor of a Province was to be appointed by the Governor General.
• (D) It was the discretion of the Governor General to preside at meetings of the Federal Council of Ministers.

11. Among the following which major irrigation project has the maximum irrigation potential (In hectares) by December-2024?

• (A) Parwan
• (B) Eastern Rajasthan Canal Project
• (C) Pipalakhunt high level canal
• (D) Upper high level canal (Mahi)

12. According to Article 355 of the Constitution of India, under which of the following two situations, it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State?

• (A) War and External aggression
• (B) External aggression and Internal disturbance
• (C) War and Armed rebellion
• (D) External aggression and Armed rebellion

13. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the reorganization of states?

(I) The Indian National Congress promised and recognized the linguistic principle as the basis of formation of states during its Nagpur Session in 1920.

(II) Immediately after the independence, Indian leaders felt that carving out states on the basis of language might lead to disruption and disintegration.

(III) The first state to be formed on the basis of language was Tamil Nadu in 1952.

(IV) The States Re-organisation Commission was constituted in 1952 to redraw the boundaries of states.

Codes :

• (A) Only (I) and (II) are correct.
• (B) Only (III) and (IV) are correct.
• (C) Only (II) and (III) are correct.
• (D) Only (I) and (IV) are correct.

14. Identify the incorrect pair of Principle implied in Fundamental Rights and its related Article of the Constitution of India:

• (A) Protection against arbitrariness of the State : Article 14
• (B) Proportionate Representation : Article 18
• (C) Speedy Trial : Article 21
• (D) Freedom of Conscience : Article 25

15. Consider the following statements related to the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of the electoral rolls:

(I) As per law, electoral rolls have to be revised before every election or as per requirement.

(II) Last SIR was done in 2002-2004.

(III) SIR has been done 10 times from 1951 till 2004.

Codes :

• (A) Only (II) and (III) are correct.
• (B) Only (I) and (III) are correct.
• (C) (I), (II) and (III) are correct.
• (D) Only (I) and (II) are correct.

16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Case)	List-II (Issue)
(a) R.C. Cooper vs. Union of India	(I) Inter-country adoptions
(b) S.P. Gupta vs. President of India	(II) Statutory status of CVC
(c) L.K. Pandey vs. Union of India	(III) Bank Nationalization struck-down
(d) Vineet Narain vs. Union of India	(IV) Strengthening performance of public duties

Codes :

• (A) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
• (B) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
• (C) a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II
• (D) a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III

17. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

• (A) The Right to Information Act : 2005
• (B) The Competition Act : 2008
• (C) The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act : 2009
• (D) The National Food Security Act : 2013

18. What are the rules and grounds of filing direct complaint before the Central Information Commission (CIC)?

Find the correct answer using the codes given below:

(I) Under Section 18 of the RTI Act, direct complaint can be filed.

(II) An application has been refused access to any information requested under the RTI Act.

(III) A foreign national seeking any information under the RTI Act.

(IV) An applicant has been required to pay an amount of fee, which he or she considers unreasonable.

Codes :

• (A) Only (II), (III) and (IV) are correct.
• (B) Only (I), (III) and (IV) are correct.
• (C) Only (I) and (IV) are correct.
• (D) Only (I), (II) and (IV) are correct.

19. Which among the following Audits is/are not performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

(I) Compliance Audit

(II) Financial Attest Audit

(III) Performance Audit

(IV) Fiscal Audit

Codes :

• (A) Only (IV)
• (B) Only (II)
• (C) Only (II) and (IV)
• (D) Only (I) and (III)

20. Identify the only Governor of Rajasthan, during whose tenure the President’s Rule under Article 356 was proclaimed as well as revoked:

• (A) Sampurnanand
• (B) Vedpal Tyagi
• (C) Raghukul Tilak
• (D) M. Chenna Reddy

21. Who among the following is not a member of the committee which is responsible for the appointment of Chairperson and Members of the State Human Rights Commission?

• (A) Chief Minister of the State
• (B) Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly
• (C) Chief Justice of the State High Court
• (D) Leader of the Opposition in the State Legislative Assembly

22. Identify the correct group of persons who served as Chief Minister of Rajasthan on two occasions during the decade of 1980’s (1980 to 1989):

• (A) Bhairon Singh Shekhawat and Shiv Charan Mathur
• (B) Hari Dev Joshi and Hiralal Devpura
• (C) Shiv Charan Mathur and Hari Dev Joshi
• (D) Bhairon Singh Shekhawat and Hari Dev Joshi

23. Within what period must the State Government decide on the recommendations of the Rajasthan State Commission for Women under Section 12 (3) of the Rajasthan State Commission for Women Act, 1999?

• (A) 3 Months
• (B) 4 Months
• (C) 5 Months
• (D) 6 Months

24. According to Bharatiya Nagarika Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 within how many days charges have to be framed against the accused from the date of first hearing on charge?

• (A) 45 days
• (B) 60 days
• (C) 90 days
• (D) 15 days

25. Which cities are specifically mentioned in the Global Capability Centre Policy-2025 to be developed as Global Capability Centre Hubs in Rajasthan?

• (A) Jaipur, Jodhpur, Udaipur, Kota and Ajmer
• (B) Jaipur, Jodhpur, Bhilwara and Kota
• (C) Jaipur, Jodhpur and Alwar
• (D) Jaipur, Udaipur, Alwar and Bhilwara

26. In the calculation of National income to arrive at ‘Factor Cost’ from ‘Market Price’, we must

• (A) add indirect taxes.
• (B) add depreciation.
• (C) subtract indirect taxes and add subsidies.
• (D) add indirect taxes and subtract subsidies.

27. Which of the following statements regarding Rajasthan State Child Rights Protection Commission (RSCRPC) are correct?

(I) It is a statutory body.

(II) It is committed to implementing the conceptualization of ‘Bal Mitra Rajasthan’.

(III) Directorate of Women Empowerment is an administrative department of the RSCRPC.

(IV) It was constituted on February 23, 2010 as per Section 17 of the Child Rights Protection Act, 2005.

Codes :

• (A) Only (I), (II) and (III) are correct.
• (B) Only (II), (III) and (IV) are correct.
• (C) Only (I), (II) and (IV) are correct.
• (D) Only (I), (III) and (IV) are correct.

28. Assertion (A) : Expansionary Monetary Policy increases the economy’s output.

Reason (R) : An increase in the money supply reduces the interest rate, increases investment spending and aggregate demand and thus increases equilibrium output.

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

29. Consider the following statements with regard to Stock Exchanges of India:

(I) National Stock Exchange of India was setup on the recommendations of the Pherwani Committee in 1991.

(II) Bombay Stock Exchange was the first exchange in India to introduce an electronic trading facility.

(III) Bombay Stock Exchange is the oldest stock exchange in Asia and also the tenth oldest in the world.

Which of the above are correct?

• (A) (I) and (II) are correct.
• (B) (II) and (III) are correct.
• (C) (I) and (III) are correct.
• (D) (I), (II) and (III) are correct.

30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I	List-II
(a) Open inflation	(I) When there is effective price control by the government.
(b) Demand pull inflation	(II) When there is no barrier to price rise.
(c) Ratchet inflation	(III) When aggregate demand is more than aggregate supply at full employment level.
(d) Suppressed inflation	(IV) When although aggregate demand is not excessive but it is so distributed in economy that it is excessive in certain sectors.

Codes :

• (A) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
• (B) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
• (C) a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
• (D) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I

31. Zero primary deficit means

(I) The Government’s current revenues are sufficient to meet its interest and non-interest expenditure.

(II) Borrowing is only to service past debt.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (II) is correct.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Both (I) and (II) are incorrect.

32. Which of the following plans has registered the lowest real growth rate in India?

• (A) First Five Year Plan
• (B) Second Five Year Plan
• (C) Third Five Year Plan
• (D) Fourth Five Year Plan

33. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana–Gramin as per Economic Review 2024-25 :

(I) An additional amount of ₹ 15,000 is provided to each beneficiary to build toilets under the Swachh Bharat Mission.

(II) The beneficiaries are also provided daily wages upto 90 days through MGNREGS.

Choose the correct option :

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (II) is correct.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Both (I) and (II) are incorrect.

34. Consider the following statements with regard to India’s foreign trade in the calendar year 2024 :

(I) India’s share in global merchandise exports and imports was 1.8 percent and 2.8 percent respectively in 2024.

(II) Globally in 2024 India had occupied 18^th rank on the export front and 9^th rank on the import front.

Which of the above is/are ture? :

• (A) Only (I) is true.
• (B) Only (II) is true.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are true.
• (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is true.

35. In Rajasthan, in 2023-24 the export of which of the following product was the highest?

• (A) Engineering Goods
• (B) Gems and Jewellery
• (C) Textiles
• (D) Wool & Wollens

36. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(I) e-Shram Portal is a one stop solution connecting job seekers, employers, training providers and career guidance & counselling agencies.

(II) National Career Service Portal is steadily bridging the gap between informal and formal employment, serving as a key institutional mechanism for extending social protection to unorganized workers.

Codes :

• (A) Only (I) is true.
• (B) Only (II) is true.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are true.
• (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is true.

37. What is the primary objective of the Rajasthan Circular Economy Incentive Scheme 2025?

• (A) To increase solar power generation.
• (B) To promote waste reduction, recycling and sustainable resource management.
• (C) To promote rural tourism.
• (D) To improve quality of education.

38. The Rajasthan AI/ML Policy 2026 emphasizes which of the following AI approaches?

• (A) Fully automated, humanless decision making
• (B) Unregulated and open source AI deployment
• (C) AI focused industrial manufacturing
• (D) Ethical, transparent and secure AI systems

39. Rank the following districts of Rajasthan in terms of their per capita income for the year 2023-24 at current prices in a descending order :

(I) Jaipur, (II) Ajmer, (III) Alwar, (IV) Bhilwara, (V) Jaisalmer

Codes :

• (A) I, II, III, IV, V
• (B) I, III, IV, II, V
• (C) III, I, IV, II, V
• (D) III, IV, I, II, V

40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :

List-I (State Finance Commission of Rajasthan)	List-II (Chairman)
(a) First	(I) Sh. Hiralal Devpura
(b) Second	(II) Sh. Manik Chand Surana
(c) Third	(III) Dr. B.D. Kalla
(d) Fourth	(IV) Sh. K.K. Goel

Codes :

• (A) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
• (B) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
• (C) a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III
• (D) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II

41. Tibia and Fibula bones are located in which part/region of human body?

• (A) Fore limb
• (B) Hind limb
• (C) Pelvic region
• (D) Thoracic region

42. Consider the following statements and select the correct option:

Statement (I) : A cookie is a text file which is transferred by the website to the browser when we browse it.

Statement (II) : Cookies help to extend and modify the functionality of the browser.

• (A) Only Statement (I) is correct.
• (B) Only Statement (II) is correct.
• (C) Both Statements (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Neither Statements (I) nor Statement (II) is correct.

43. A sound wave or electromagnetic wave of known frequency is sent towards a moving object, some part of the wave is reflected from the object and change in signal frequency is detected by the monitoring station. This is called:

• (A) Doppler shift
• (B) Compton shift
• (C) Lamb shift
• (D) Raman shift

44. Which one of the following statements is not true for GSLV-F16?

• (A) GSLV-F 16 is the 18^th flight of India’s Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) and the 12^th flight with Indigenous Cryogenic Stage.
• (B) This is the 9^th operational flight of GSLV with Indigenous Cryogenic Stage.
• (C) GSLV-F 16 mission is the third mission with GSLV to Sun Synchronous Polar Orbit.
• (D) It was 102^nd launch from Sriharikota.

45. Consider the following statements for CMS-03 communication satellite and choose the correct option:

Statement (I) : CMS-03 was launched by LVM3’s 4^th operational flight on November 20, 2025.

Statement (II) : CMS-03 is a multi-band communication satellite that provides services over a wide oceanic region including the Indian landmass.

• (A) Both the statements (I) and (II) are true.
• (B) Both the statements (I) and (II) are false.
• (C) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false.
• (D) Statement (II) is true, but Statement (I) is false.

46. What is the minimum sampling frequency (Nyquist sampling rate) needed to sample any signal having maximum frequency component ω_m ?

• (A) ω_m
• (B) 2ω_m
• (C) 4ω_m
• (D) 8ω_m

47. __________ deals with the fabrication of patterns of nanometer-scale structures with at least one of the dimensions of the patterns in the nanoscale regime.

• (A) Nano-lithography
• (B) Nano-sedimentation
• (C) Nano-sedimentation
• (D) Nano-annealing

48. Which of the following is not a micro-nutrient of Human diet?

• (A) Iron
• (B) Iodine
• (C) Omega-3-fatty acid
• (D) Folic acid

49. Which of the following is the primary bio-marker for the detection of acute renal failure?

• (A) Blood urea
• (B) Serum creatinine
• (C) Glomerular filtration rate
• (D) Serum sodium

50. How many Industry-Academia Centres of Excellence have been established by DRDO (Till 1 December, 2025), covering identified research verticals?

• (A) 10
• (B) 15
• (C) 20
• (D) 25

51. Select the incorrect pair of the district of Rajasthan and it’s official Animal/Bird mascot:

• (A) Ajmer – Lesser Florican
• (B) Bhilwara – Indian Peafowl
• (C) Bundi – Brahminy Duck
• (D) Jhunjhunu – Demoiselle Crane

52. The Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989 are notified under which of the following Acts by the Government of India?

• (A) Organism (Protection) Act, 1986
• (B) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
• (C) Biosafety Clearing-House Act, 1986
• (D) Import-Export Act, 1986

53. Consider the given statements (I) and (II) and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Statement (I) : Natural Greenhouse effect is essential for sustenance of life on earth.

Statement (II) : Ozone present in the troposphere helps mitigate the effect of UV radiations.

• (A) Both statements are true.
• (B) Both statements are false.
• (C) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false.
• (D) Statement (II) is true, but Statement (I) is false.

54. At which of the following place E-based STRCs of Department of Science and Technology, Rajasthan is not established? (as on 1^st Feb., 2026)

• (A) Bahadurwas
• (B) Bambore
• (C) Chandesara
• (D) Sepau

55. In the question given below, a statement and two assumptions (I) and (II) are given. Choose the correct option from the following:

Statement : Many educational institutes have adopted the online examination system.

Assumption (I) : Now-a-days all students are well-versed in computers.

Assumption (II) : Online examination system is completely secured and chances of paper leakage is nil.

• (A) Only Assumption (I) is implicit.
• (B) Only Assumption (II) is implicit.
• (C) Both Assumptions (I) and (II) are implicit.
• (D) Neither Assumption (I) nor (II) is implicit.

56. Match the fruit crops given in Column I with the name of its major producing districts of Rajasthan in Column II, and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column I	Column II
(a) Custard Apple	(I) Sri Ganganagar
(b) Kinnow	(II) Baran
(c) Pomegranate	(III) Sirohi
(d) Grapes	(IV) Chittorgarh
(e) BlackBerry	(V) Jalore

Codes :

• (A) a-IV, b-I, c-V, d-III, e-II
• (B) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV, e-V
• (C) a-V, b-IV, c-II, d-I, e-III
• (D) a-IV, b-I, c-V, d-II, e-III

57. Five students P, Q, R, S and T scored different marks in an examination. Q scored more marks than at least two students. T scored less marks than S but more than R. S scored less marks than P. Q did not score the highest marks.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statements :

(I) Q holds second position.

(II) Q holds third position.

(III) Q holds fourth position.

• (A) Only statement (I) is true.
• (B) Only statement (II) is true.
• (C) Only statement (III) is true.
• (D) Either statement (I) or (II) is true.

58. In the question given below, a statement is followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given statement to be true. Read the conclusions and choose the correct option.

Statement : Manufacturing industries are destroying the natural resources.

Conclusion (I) : There will be no environmental pollution, if all manufacturing industries are shut-down.

Conclusion (II) : All natural resources are destroyed by manufacturing industries.

• (A) Only Conclusion (I) follows.
• (B) Only Conclusion (II) follows.
• (C) Both Conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
• (D) Neither Conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

59. In a certain code language “TALENT” is coded as “GTOEMA” and “RUMOUR” is coded as “IRNOFU”, then in the same code language, “SEARCH” will be coded as

• (A) HIYSXF
• (B) HHZRXE
• (C) HHYSYF
• (D) IHZRYE

60. There are six members A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. E is daughter of B and A is brother of B. C is father of A and D is brother of E. F is wife of C. Uncle of D is

• (A) A
• (B) B
• (C) C
• (D) E

61. Three-digit number are formed of the form “abc” where all the digits a, b and c are different and b = a + c. Total number of such possible three-digit number is

• (A) 16
• (B) 24
• (C) 32
• (D) 45

62. For any two numbers p and q, (p + q) : (p – q) : pq = 7 : 1 : 60

If p² + q² = r², then r is equal to

• (A) ± 20
• (B) ± 23
• (C) ± 24
• (D) ± 25

63. The next term of the following series is :

6\tfrac{1}{4},7\tfrac{1}{7},8\tfrac{1}{3},10,?

• (A) 11
• (B) 12
• (C) 12\tfrac{1}{2}
• (D) 11\tfrac{1}{6}

64. Following pie-charts show distribution of sales of Hindi and English newspapers in five cities, A, B, C, D and E:

The ratio of average number of English newspapers in the cities B, C and E to the average number of Hindi newspapers in the cities A and D is

• (A) 10 : 19
• (B) 19 : 10
• (C) 16 : 33
• (D) 9 : 11

65. What is the name of US special envoy who met with the Prime Minister of Israel on 3^rd February, 2026 ahead of US-Iran talks?

• (A) Keroline Leavitt
• (B) Steve Witkoff
• (C) Andrew Puzder
• (D) Richard Grenell

66. Which of the following spiritual leaders is one of the winners of the Grammy Awards 2026?

• (A) Dalai Lama
• (B) Sri Sri Ravi Shankar
• (C) James Redfield
• (D) Mooji

67. ₹ 2 lakh is invested in a fixed deposit at the rate of 10% annual compound interest. At the end of each year, 20% of obtained interest is deducted as tax. After 2 years, total amount received is equal to

• (A) ₹ 2,33,285
• (B) ₹ 2,33,280
• (C) ₹ 2,33,800
• (D) ₹ 2,33,150

68. The “Patna Bird Sanctuary” and Chhari-Dhand which have been added as two new wetlands to the India’s Ramsar Network in January 2026 are situated respectively in

• (A) Bihar and Maharashtra
• (B) Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat
• (C) Madhya Pradesh and Odisha
• (D) Telangana and Haryana

69. In the budget 2026-27 of Rajasthan presented by Deputy Chief Minister (Finance) of 11^th February 2026, how much has the premium amount payable at the time of application for the allotment of mining lease in Khatedari land been announced to be reduced?

• (A) From 40% to 30%
• (B) From 40% to 25%
• (C) From 50% to 40%
• (D) From 50% to 30%

70. Yumnam Khemchand Singh has been sworn in February 2026 as the __________ Chief Minister of Manipur.

• (A) 11^th
• (B) 12^th
• (C) 13^th
• (D) 14^th

71. India’s Tejaswin Shankar won the men’s high jump title at the DeLoss Dodds Invitational 2026 athetics meet in January 2026. Where was this competition organized?

• (A) Albuquerque, New Mexico
• (B) Manhattan, Kansas
• (C) Staten Island, New York
• (D) Indianapolis, Indiana

72. Read the following statements carefully:

(I) He is considered one of the last few artists to perform all 2,500 couplets of ‘Pandun Ka Kada’ from the Mahabharata.

(II) He has been announced to be awarded the Padma Shri in January 2026 for his remarkable contribution to the field of ‘Art’.

To which personality from Rajasthan do the above statements refer?

• (A) Gafruddin Mewati Jogi
• (B) Taga Ram Bheel
• (C) Jakir Khan
• (D) Poonamram

73. Where was the second edition of the Indian Navy Half Marathon conducted on 1^st February, 2026?

• (A) New Delhi
• (B) Mumbai
• (C) Visakhapatnam
• (D) Kochi

74. Rajasthan’s U-17 Girls team won gold medal in the 69^th National School Games (2025-26) held in Ranchi in January 2026, in which of the following event?

• (A) Hockey
• (B) Archery (Compound)
• (C) Football
• (D) Basketball

75. In February 2026, which of the following Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) was approved for the grant of ‘Miniratna’ Category-I status by the Defence Minister?

• (A) Munitions India Limited
• (B) Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited
• (C) Yantra India Limited
• (D) India Optel Limited

76. Who among the following was appointed as the state brand ambassador for Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) by the Government of Rajasthan in February 2026?

• (A) K.K. Gupta
• (B) Ravi Jain
• (C) Sunidhi Jangid
• (D) Jayesh Upadhyay

77. Consider the following statements in context with a Memorandum of Understanding signed in February 2026 between Rajasthan State Election Commission and the Madhya Pradesh State Election Commission and Choose the correct option:

(I) Under this MoU, a total of 30,000 control units and 60,000 ballet units will be provided by Madhya Pradesh State Election Commission on rent to Rajasthan State Election Commission for local body elections.

(II) Technical testing of EVMs (FLC), repair and necessary technical support will be carried out by the authorized engineers of CEERI, Pilani.

• (A) Only statement (I) is correct.
• (B) Only statement (II) is correct.
• (C) Both the statements (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Both the statements (I) and (II) are wrong.

78. “1^st All India Fire Service Sports Meet” was organized at which of the following cities of Rajasthan in January 2026?

• (A) Udaipur
• (B) Ajmer
• (C) Kota
• (D) Jodhpur

79. Which of the following pairs correctly shows the names of captains of Rajasthan’s men and women Ice Hockey Teams which participated in Khelo India Winter games in January 2026 at Ladakh?

• (A) Parv Sharma and Sarita Jat
• (B) Nishant Pratap Singh and Priya Bhadu
• (C) Shiv Narayan and Suman Choudhary
• (D) Ankit Kumar and Kanika

80. Consider the following statements in context with Rajasthan Aerospace and Defence Policy announced in January 2026 and select the correct option:

(I) Under the policy, manufacturing projects having capital investment between a minimum of ₹ 50 crore and ₹ 300 crore will be classified as large, ₹ 300 crore to ₹ 1,000 crore as mega and above ₹ 1,000 crore as ultra mega.

(II) Eligible aerospace and defence manufacturng and service units set up in A and D parks will receive investment support in the form of reimbursement of 75 percent of state taxes for seven years as asset creation incentive.

• (A) Only statement (I) is correct.
• (B) Only statement (II) is correct.
• (C) Both the statements (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Both the statements (I) and (II) are wrong.

81. On the recommendation of the committee constituted under the chairmanship of which of the following leaders, the Government of India merged the four units of Matsya Sangh into Rajasthan on May 15, 1949?

• (A) Vallabhbhai Patel
• (B) Shankardev Rai
• (C) Heeralal Shastri
• (D) Shobharam

82. Which of the following forts of Rajasthan is not the example of a Hill fort?

• (A) Chittorgarh
• (B) Kumbhalgarh
• (C) Jalore fort
• (D) Nagaur fort

83. Consider the following statements regarding the Marwar school of Painting and choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(I) Yellow and Red colours were used extensively in this style.

(II) The style was dominated by the Bhakti or Devotional paintings in its later era.

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (II) is correct.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Both (I) and (II) are incorrect.

84. The Chandrabhaga Fair is held every year in the month of Kartik (Oct.-Nov.) at which of the following places?

• (A) Jhalrapatan
• (B) Bundi
• (C) Tilwara
• (D) Baran

85. The capital of Bhati Dynasty before the foundation of Jaisalmer was

• (A) Jodhpur
• (B) Mandor
• (C) Osian
• (D) Ludurva/Lodarva

86. Consider the following statements regarding Saint Ramcharan and select the correct answer based on the options given below:

Statements :

(I) Saint Ramcharan was born in a village called Soda (Soorsen) near Jaipur.

(II) Saint Ramcharan died at Shahpura, Bhilwara in the year 1798 chanting Ram naam.

Choose the correct answer:

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (II) is correct.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Both (I) and (II) are incorrect.

87. Consider the following statements:

(I) The northern gate of Lohagarh Fort of Bharatpur is called Ashtadhatu and the southern gate is called Lohiya Darwaza.

(II) The northern gate of Lohagarh Fort of Bharatpur is called Lohiya Darwaza and the southern gate is called Ashtadhatu.

(III) The Ashtadhatu door was brought by Maharaja Surajmal from Red Fort in Delhi.

(IV) The Ashtadhatu door was brought by Maharaja Jawahar Singh from Red Fort in Delhi.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (A) Only (I) and (III) are correct.
• (B) Only (I) and (IV) are correct.
• (C) Only (II) and (III) are correct.
• (D) Only (II) and (IV) are correct.

88. Select the correct set of ornaments traditionally worn on head by the women of Rajasthan from the options given below:

• (A) Bor, Shishfool, Jhela, Tikara
• (B) Bor, Shishfool, Jhela, Hanker
• (C) Bor, Pot, Nevari, Chop
• (D) Bor, Shishfool, Rakhari, Tikara

89. Buland Darwaza or Boland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri was built to commemorate Akbar’s victory over which of the following State?

• (A) Gujarat
• (B) Bengal
• (C) Malwa
• (D) Punjab

90. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Kushan emperor ‘Kanishka’?

• (A) He erected a monastery and a huge stupa at Peshawar.
• (B) He started an era in 78 AD.
• (C) He convened a council for Buddhism at Kashmir.
• (D) His successor was Vasumitra.

91. Consider the following statements :

(I) The 1857 Revolt, began at Meerut on 10 May, 1857.

(II) At Kanpur, the revolt was led by Kunwar Singh.

(III) At Lucknow, the revolt was led by Hazarat Mahal.

(IV) At Bihar, the revolt was led by Khan Bahadur.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (A) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
• (B) (II) and (IV)
• (C) (III) and (IV)
• (D) (I) and (III)

92. Name the archeological site related to the Indus Valley Civilization which is situated at Larkana is Sindh.

• (A) Mohenjodaro
• (B) Harappa
• (C) Kalibanga
• (D) Ropar

93. Consider the following statements regarding Young Bengal Movement and choose the right answer from the options given below:

(I) It was started by Henry Vivian Derazio in the year 1820.

(II) Derazio was a teacher at Hindu College, Calcutta.

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (II) is correct.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Both (I) and (II) are not correct.

94. Which of these was not a member of State Re-organization Commission (SRC) founded in 1954?

• (A) K.M. Panikar
• (B) Fazal Ali
• (C) Vallabhbhai Patel
• (D) Hridaynath Kunjru

95. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below:

List-I (Mountain Peak)	List-II (Country)
(a) Cook	(I) USA
(b) Kosciusko	(II) Mexico
(c) Popocatepetl	(III) New Zealand
(d) McKinley	(IV) Australia

Codes :

• (A) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
• (B) a-III, b-IV, d-II, d-I
• (C) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
• (D) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV

96. Who founded the Congress–Khilafat Swaraj Party in the year 1922?

• (A) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
• (B) Ali Brothers
• (C) Maulana Azad
• (D) Saifuddin Kichlew

97. Which one among the following ports is not located on the Caribbean, Gulf–Oceanic route?

• (A) Port Said
• (B) Sparrow Point
• (C) Morissville
• (D) New Orleans

98. Which among the following topographical features are found in the North-Western Himalayas?

(I) Patkai Bum, (II) Karewas, (III) Pat Land, (IV) Photu La Pass

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes :

• (A) Only (II) and (IV)
• (B) Only (I) and (III)
• (C) (I), (II) and (IV)
• (D) (II), (III) and (IV)

99. According to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (India) Solid Waste Management Rules-2026, which of the following waste items falls under “special care waste”?

• (A) Tampons, Flowers
• (B) Glass, Rubber
• (C) Paint cans, Medicines
• (D) Vegetables, Plastic

100. ‘Sendai Framework’ is related with

• (A) Agricultural Development
• (B) Disaster Risk Reduction
• (C) Wetland Conservation
• (D) Road Development

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