Rajasthan Police Sub Inspector Exam, 2025 (05-04-2026) Question Paper-II (GK & GS)

General Information

Exam Board	Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC)
Exam Name	Sub Inspector/Platoon Commander Combined Competitive Examination, 2025 (RPSC SI)
Recruitment Department	Home (Group-1) Department, Rajasthan Government
Exam Date	05-04-2026
Exam Time	03.00 PM to 05.00 PM
Model Answer Key issue date	07-04-2026
Final Answer key issue date	–
Exam Mode	Offline
Question paper language	Hindi
Question paper type	Objective
Subject	General Knowledge & General Science
Total Question	100
Maximum Marks	200
Negative Marking	1/3
Time	02:00 Hours

This question paper includes questions related to the following subjects :-

1. History, Art, Culture, Literature, Tradition & Heritage of Rajasthan
2. Indian History
3. Geography of World and India
4. Geography of Rajasthan
5. Indian Constitution, Political System & Governance
6. Political and Administrative System of Rajasthan
7. Economic Concepts and Indian Economy
8. Economy of Rajasthan
9. Science & Technology
10. Reasoning & Mental Ability
11. Current Affairs

Solved Question Paper

1. As per Rajasthan Monsoon Report-2025 (IMD, Jaipur), during 1901-2025, in which year the highest rainfall was recorded in Rajasthan?

• (A) 1917
• (B) 2021
• (C) 1988
• (D) 2012

2. As per Administrative Report 2024-25 (Assessment year 2023) Forest Department of Rajasthan, which pair of districts have lowest total forest cover (in sq. km.)?

• (A) Hanumangarh and Jodhpur
• (B) Churu and Jodhpur
• (C) Churu and Ganganagar
• (D) Churu and Hanumangarh

3. In which district of Rajasthan, total area (in hectare) under Maize was maximum in year 2022-23?

• (A) Udaipur
• (B) Chittorgarh
• (C) Bhilwara
• (D) Banswara

4. Among the following, which is/are correct statement/s?

(I) RIICO has developed agro-food parks at kota and Sriganganagar.

(II) Japanese Industrial Zone has been developed at Bhiwadi.

(III) Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is located at Sitapura.

Select the correct answer using codes given below :

Codes :

• (A) Only (I) and (II)
• (B) Only (II) and (III)
• (C) Only (I) and (III)
• (D) (I), (II) and (III)

5. Near which lake Lasadia dissected plateau is situated?

• (A) North of Foysagar Lake
• (B) West of Anupsagar Lake
• (C) East of Jaisamand Lake
• (D) East of Rajsamand Lake

6. As per Census-2011, which among the following group is correctly matched about sex-ratio in Rajasthan?

	Rural	Urban	Total
(I)	931	916	928
(III)	933	914	928
(III)	933	912	926
(IV)	931	912	926

• (A) (I)
• (B) (II)
• (C) (III)
• (D) (IV)

7. Which one of the following statement about the Government of India Act, 1919 is incorrect?

• (A) Lord Chelmsford was the Governor General of India at that time.
• (B) The proportion of elected members in the Provincial Legislative Councils was raised to 70 percent.
• (C) ‘Transferred subjects’ were to be administered by the Governor and his Executive Council.
• (D) Provincial Legislative Council was empowered to present its own budget and levy its own taxes.

8. Consider the following:

(A) Rishabhdev

(B) Sendra

(C) Khairwara

(D) Dabla Singhana

How many of the above are related with Asbestos mines?

• (A) Only one
• (B) Only two
• (C) Only three
• (D) All four

9. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A) : The component units of the Indian Federation have no freedom to secede from it.

Reason (R) : The Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the units.

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

10. In the post-emergency elections of 1977, which of the following political parties did not join the United Opposition Alliance?

• (A) CPI and CPI (M)
• (B) DMK and CPI (M)
• (C) BLD and PSP
• (D) DMK and CPI

11. Which of the following Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSPs) is correctly matched with its provision in the Constitution of India?

• (A) Article 43A – Free and compulsory education for children
• (B) Article 46 – Uniform civil code throughout India
• (C) Article 47 – Participation of workers in the management of undertakings
• (D) Article 48 – Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry

12. Supporting Panchayati Raj, which Indian Cabinet Minister made the following famous statement in a gathering of Panchayat members in Bangalore?

“Mr. Hegde may belong to the Janata Party and I may belong to the Congress Party but we both belong to the Panchayati Raj Party.”

• (A) Sh. Arjun Singh
• (B) Sh. P.V. Narasimha Rao
• (C) Dr. Manmohan Singh
• (D) Sh. Sharad Pawar

13. To empower Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter enumerated in the State List in the national interest, a resolution of Council of States under Article 249 has to be supported by:

• (A) Not less than majority of the members present and voting.
• (B) Not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
• (C) Not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting and majority of all the then members of the House.
• (D) Not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting and majority of the total membership of the House.

14. According to Article 145 of the Constitution, what is the minimum number of Supreme Court’s judges, who are to sit for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143?

• (A) 4
• (B) 5
• (C) 7
• (D) 9

15. What are the six principles of the Citizen Charter of India?

• (A) Quality, Choice, Standards, Value, Accountability, Transparency
• (B) Time, Vision, Mission, Performance, Responsibility, Delivery
• (C) Effective, Reform, Equality, Specific, Skill, Team-Work
• (D) Quantity, Rules, Procedures, Grievances Redressal, Efficiency, Time-bound

16. Few sections and their provisions of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 are mentioned below. Identify the correct pairs using the codes given below:

(I) Section 290 : Time-bound plea-bargaining

(II) Section 293 : Plea-bargaining for habitual offenders

(III) Section 360 : Victim to be heard before withdrawal from prosecution

(IV) Section 479 : Period for which under-trial prisoners can be detained

Codes :

• (A) Only (I) and (II) are correct.
• (B) Only (II) and (III) are correct.
• (C) Only (I), (II) and (III) are correct.
• (D) Only (I), (III) and (IV) are correct.

17. For the purpose of the Viksit Bharat-Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (GRAMIN) : VB-G Ram G Act, 2025, a 90 : 10 funding pattern between the Central and State Governments is applicable to all of the following, except:

• (A) Uttarakhand
• (B) Himachal Pradesh
• (C) Jammu and Kashmir
• (D) Jharkhand

18. Identify the incorrect pair of the innovation implemented by the RPSC and the year of its implementation:

	Innovation	Year of Implementation
(I)	Online Application	2012
(II)	My Exam My Online Review Yes (Memory)	2013
(III)	Online Complaint	2014
(IV)	Visitor Management	2018

• (A) (I)
• (B) (II)
• (C) (III)
• (D) (IV)

19. Who among the following, did not serve as the Governor of Rajasthan during the enforcement of the proclamation of President’s Rule under Article 356?

• (A) Hukum Singh
• (B) Vasant Rao Patil
• (C) Dhanik Lal Mandal
• (D) Baliram Bhagat

20. Regarding Leader of Opposition in different House of Rajasthan State Legislative Assembly, match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I	List-II
(a) First House	(I) Laxman Singh
(b) Third House	(II) Jaswant Singh
(c) Seventh House	(III) Haridev Joshi
(d) Ninth House	(IV) Bhairon Singh Shekhawat

Codes :

• (A) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
• (B) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
• (C) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
• (D) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I

21. In the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which of the following provisions is listed incorrectly?

• (A) A new chapter dealing with provisions relating to crime against woman and child has been added in the BNS.
• (B) Various offences against women and children have been made gender-neutral.
• (C) Medical report of a victim of rape has to be sent to the investigative officer within 14 days.
• (D) For gang rape against a woman below the age of 18 years, the punishment is life imprisonment or death.

22. In order to control inflation, government should

• (A) increase indirect taxes.
• (B) increase direct taxes.
• (C) increase public expenditure.
• (D) decrease direct taxes.

23. At which rate does the Reserve Bank of India borrow money from commercial banks?

• (A) Repo rate
• (B) Bank rate
• (C) Reverse Repo rate
• (D) Marginal Standing Facility rate

24. In order to give priority to women’s issues and for their implementation, the Directorate of Women Empowerment in Rajasthan was separately constituted on which of the following dates?

• (A) 18 June, 2006
• (B) 18 June, 2007
• (C) 18 June, 2008
• (D) 18 June, 2009

25. According to the National Manufacturing Mission announced in the Union Budget 2025-26, what is the target for the manufacturing sector’s contribution to India’s GDP?

• (A) 20 percent by 2030
• (B) 25 percent by 2035
• (C) 30 percent by 2040
• (D) 35 percent by 2047

26. Which one of the following has yielded the largest revenue in the central budget of Government of India in the year 2024-25?

• (A) Corporation tax
• (B) Goods and Services tax
• (C) Income tax
• (D) Union Excise duty

27. Consider the following statements regarding Human Development Report 2025:

(I) The 2025 Human Development Report titled “a matter of choice : People and Possibilities in the age of technology” highlights the critical role of technology in human development.

(II) Among India’s neighbours China, Sri Lanka and Bhutan rank above India while Bangladesh is at par; Nepal, Mayanmar, Pakistan are ranked below India in human development index.

(III) India remains in the medium human development category with human development index less than .700.

Which of the above are correct?

Codes :

• (A) (I) and (II) are correct.
• (B) (I) and (III) are correct.
• (C) (II) and (III) are correct.
• (D) (I), (II) and (III) are correct.

28. Consider the following statements with regard to National Stock Exchange :

(I) NSE commenced its operations with the Wholesale Debt Market (WDM) segment.

(II) In 2012, NSE launched the “NSE-EMERGE” platform for the listing of Small and Medium sized Enterprises (SME).

• (A) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (B) Only (I) is correct.
• (C) Only (II) is correct.
• (D) Both (I) and (II) are incorrect.

29. Under the Raj Saras Suraksha Kavach Bima Yojana, how much compensation is provided to milk producers in Rajasthan?

• (A) 5 lakh
• (B) 10 lakh
• (C) 15 lakh
• (D) 20 lakh

30. Which of the following is not a key feature/support mechanism of the Trade Promotion Policy 2025 of Rajasthan?

• (A) Interest subvention on loans
• (B) Credit guarantee support
• (C) Mandatory 50 percent exports
• (D) Empower traders digitally

31. Arrange the following institutions in the chronological order of their establishment in India (from oldest to latest):

(I) NABARD, (II) SEBI, (III) SIDBI, (IV) ECGC

Codes :

• (A) IV, I, III, II
• (B) III, II, I, IV
• (C) I, III, IV, II
• (D) II, I, IV, III

32. Identify incorrect combination and select the correct answer using codes given below :

Scheme of Rajasthan	Beneficiary Group/Region
(a) Aastha Scheme	(I) Aastha Card for families in which two or more persons are under the specially abled categories with more than 50 percent disability
(b) Navjivan Yojana	(II) Scheme for welfare for welfare of communities engaged in business of illegal liquor
(c) Mission Vatsalya Yojana	(III) Scheme for welfare of orphan children
(d) Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram	(IV) Scheme for the development of desert and hilly areas

Codes :

• (A) Only (a) and (d) are incorrect.
• (B) Only (b) and (c) are incorrect.
• (C) Only (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect.
• (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are incorrect.

33. As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, which of the following pair is not correctly matched about the position of Rajasthan in agricultural production among other states of India in the year 2024-25?

• (A) Coarse cereals – First position
• (B) Pulses – Third position
• (C) Oil-seeds – First position
• (D) Food grain – Third position

34. Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(I) The contribution of Service Sector in Gross State Value Added (at current prices) of Rajasthan during 2024-25 was the highest.

(II) The contribution of Livestock in Gross State Value Added originating in Agricultural Sector (at current prices) of Rajasthan during 2024-25 was the highest.

(III) The contribution of Mining and Quarrying in Gross State Value Added originating in Industrial Sector (at current prices) of Rajasthan during 2024-25 was the lowest.

(IV) The contribution of Trade and Hotels & Restaurants in Gross State Value Added originating in Service Sector (at current prices) of Rajasthan during 2024-25 was the highest.

Codes :

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (I), (II) and (IV) are correct.
• (C) Only (I), (II) and (III) are correct.
• (D) (I), (II), (III) and (IV) all are correct.

35. Navnera Barrage (ERCP) is being constructed across river

• (A) Kalisindh
• (B) Parwan
• (C) Mahi
• (D) Banas

36. The 12^th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific region was inaugurated in March 2025 in Jaipur. Here 3R means–

• (A) Reduce, Reuse, Reserve
• (B) Recycle, Resource, Regenerate
• (C) Reuse, Redesign, Recycle
• (D) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle

37. Match Column-I with Column-II for acids available in different natural sources and choose the correct option by using codes given below the columns :

Column-I (Source)	Column-II (Acid)
(a) Tamarind	(I) Oxalic acid
(b) Tomato	(II) Tartaric acid
(c) Ant sting	(III) Methanoic acid

Codes :

• (A) a-I, b-II, c-III
• (B) a-II, b-III, c-I
• (C) a-III, b-I, c-II
• (D) a-II, b-I, c-III

38. Match List-A with List-B and choose the correct option:

List-A (Name of Project)	List-B (Funding Agency)
(a) Rajasthan Urban Sector Development Program (Phase-III)	(I) World Bank
(b) Rajasthan Water Sector Livelihood Improvement Project	(II) ADB
(c) Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project-II	(III) KFW
(d) Intra State Transmission System Green Energy Corridor-II	(IV) JICA

Codes :

• (A) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
• (B) a-IV, b-II, c-III, d-I
• (C) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
• (D) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III

39. Number of bits in protocols IPv4 and IPv6 are respectively:

• (A) 32 and 128
• (B) 48 and 64
• (C) 64 and 256
• (D) 128 and 32

40. Consider the following statements regarding amplitude modulation and choose the correct option:

Statement (I) : Amplitude modulated waves can be produced by application of the message signal and the carrier wave to a non-linear device, followed by a band pass filter.

Statement (II) : For sinusoidal message signal, amplitude modulated wave contains frequencies ω_m, 2ω_m and ω_c, each of same amplitude.

• (A) Both statements (I) and (II) are true.
• (B) Only statement (I) is true.
• (C) Only statement (II) is true.
• (D) Both statements (I) and (II) are false.

41. During December 2020 to December 2025, 22 satellites were launched by ISRO. Out of these communication and navigation related were, respectively:

• (A) 4 and 2
• (B) 6 and 3
• (C) 2 and 3
• (D) 7 and 4

42. For an n-type semiconductor, the electron and hole concentrations n_e and n_h satisfy

• (A) n_e = n_h
• (B) n_e ≪ n_h
• (C) n_e ≫ n_h
• (D) n_en_h = 1

43. As per a recent research study of Institute of Nano-Science and Technology, Mohali, a new path involving nanoparticles integrating a polyphenol with antioxidant properties found in green tea, neurotransmitters, and amino acids has the potential to treat:

• (A) Alzheimer’s disease
• (B) Epilepsy
• (C) Hydrocephalus
• (D) Dengue

44. Effective Vaccines are not widely available for which type of hepatitis?

• (A) Hepatitis A
• (B) Hepatitis B
• (C) Hepatitis C
• (D) Hepatitis E

45. Match the Column-I with Column-II in the context of Technology transferred to Transfer of Technology (ToT) partners by DRDO during SAMANVAY 2025 and select the correct answer using codes given below the columns :

Column-I (Technology)	Column-II (ToT partners)
(a) D-29 Electronic Warfare Suit	(I) Bharat Electronics, Pune
(b) Athermal Laser Target Designator	(II) Bharat Electronics, Bengaluru
(c) NATSAT-Handheld & NATSAT-Mini Terminals	(III) Bharat Electronics, Panchkula

Codes :

• (A) a-I, b-II, c-III
• (B) a-II, b-III, c-I
• (C) a-III, b-I, c-II
• (D) a-II, b-I, c-III

46. Select the correct pair regarding official hashtag (#) of UNEP and host country of global celebration of the World Environment Day 2025.

• (A) LandRestoration – Denmark
• (B) ForTheLifeofEarth – India
• (C) BeatPlasticPollution – Republic of Korea
• (D) GenerationRestoration – Saudi Arabia

47. Consider the following statements regarding the Biosphere Reserves in India and choose the correct option (as on 15 January, 2026):

• (A) India has 13 notified Biosphere Reserves out of which 10 are recognized by UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR).
• (B) India has 18 notified Biosphere Reserves out of which 10 are recognized by UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR).
• (C) India has 21 notified Biosphere Reserves out of which 15 are recognized by UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR).
• (D) India has 18 notified Biosphere Reserves out of which 13 are recognized by UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR).

48. Among the following artificial sweeteners, which one has highest sweetness value in comparison to cane sugar?

• (A) Aspartame
• (B) Saccharin
• (C) Sucralose
• (D) Alitame

49. Consider the following statements in reference to edible vaccine and select the correct answer:

Statement (I) : These are the recombinant proteins which are produced by transgenic bacteria.

Statement (II) : They are painless when delivered to subject, have low cost and are easy to store.

• (A) Both the statements (I) and (II) are correct.
• (B) Both the statements (I) and (II) are incorrect.
• (C) Statement (I) is correct, but Statement (II) is incorrect.
• (D) Statement (I) is incorrect, but Statement (II) is correct.

50. In fish farming, a combination of five or six fish species is used in a single fishpond. Read the given statements related to this, and choose the correct option :

Statement (I) : Catlas are surface feeders.

Statement (II) : Rohus feed in the middle-zone of the pond.

Statement (III) : Mrigals and Common Carps are bottom feeders.

Options :

• (A) All statements (I), (II) and (III) are true.
• (B) All statements (I), (II) and (III) are false.
• (C) Statements (I), (II) are false and Statement (III) is true.
• (D) Statements (I), (II) are true and Statement (III) is false.

51. Which of the following tree species of economic value is identified as critically endangered plant species by Rajasthan State Biodiversity Board?

• (A) Tectona grandis
• (B) Anogeissus latifolia
• (C) Anogeissus pendula
• (D) Anogeissus sericea ver. nummularia

52. Here, in this question, a statement is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and arguments, then decide which of the argument/s is/are strong?

Statement : Should petroleum products be brought under Goods and Services Tax (GST)?

Argument (I) : Yes, the petroleum products should be brough under Goods and Services Tax (GST), it will boost the economy of the country.

Argument (II) : No, economy of all states will collapse.

• (A) Only Argument (I) is strong.
• (B) Only Argument (II) is strong.
• (C) Both the Arguments (I) and (II) are strong.
• (D) Neither Argument (I) nor (II) is strong.

53. The minimum experience of teaching/scientist at any Higher Education Institute/R&D Organization situated in Rajasthan required for the “Young Scientist Award” provided by the Department of Science and Technology, Rajasthan, to outstanding teachers/scientists currently working in Rajasthan in the S & T domain is :

• (A) 1 year
• (B) 2 years
• (C) 4 years
• (D) 5 years

54. Read the following informations and answer the question given below:

A total of nine cards consisting of four kings, four queens and one joker are distributed among three persons P, Q and R such as :

(I) Q has two cards, P has three cards and R has four cards.

(II) Person, who has maximum number of cards, does not have the joker.

(III) Each one has atleast one king while Q has two kings.

Who has three queens?

• (A) Q
• (B) R
• (C) P
• (D) No one has three queens.

55. Here, in this question, a statement is followed by two course of actions numbered I and II. You have to study the statement and course of action, then decide which of the suggested course of action/s is/are following logically?

Statement : Cyber crimes are increasing now-a-days.

Course of Action (I) : Regular updation of technical knowledge and equipments of police can reduce cyber crimes.

Course of Action (II) : Cyber crimes can be reduced by conducting awareness programmes among public regularly.

• (A) Only (I) follows.
• (B) Only (II) follows.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) follow.
• (D) Neither (I) nor (II) follows.

56. In a certain code language, ‘WILDLIFE’ is coded as ‘LEFBFECC’ and ‘PAINTING’ is coded as ‘HAEGJEGD’. In the same code language ‘DYNAMICS’ can be coded as:

• (A) BNGAFECI
• (B) BMJAGEBK
• (C) BMGAGEBJ
• (D) BOGAHECJ

57. In a family, D is the father of F and E only. D has one son. E is married to G. G is the son-in-law of P. G has one son H. K and J are the children of E. L is married to K. The total number of male members in the family is:

• (A) 4
• (B) 5
• (C) 6
• (D) Insufficient information

58. On dividing a number by 5, 7 and 8 successively, the remainders are 2, 3 and 4 respectively. The number from the following options can be–

• (A) 382
• (B) 427
• (C) 432
• (D) 437

59. A, B and C invested some money in the ratio of 3 : 2 : K. If C’s share is ₹ 120 more than A’s share, B’s share is ₹ 30 less than A’s share, then the value of K is:

• (A) 5
• (B) 6
• (C) 7
• (D) 8

60. The next term in the given series from the following options is:

2 V 3, 3 S 5, 5 O 7, 7 I 11, ?

• (A) 11 C 13
• (B) 11 X 13
• (C) 11 Z 15
• (D) 9 E 13

61. Answer the question on the basis of the informations given below:

Three different climatic factors for four cities in India are shown in the following table:

City	Average Annual Rainfall (in mm)	Average Annual Temperature (in degree centigrade)	Maximum humidity in the year
A	75	21	126
B	86	17	130
C	68	17	160
D	70	24	150

If humidity factor is defined as average annual rainfall divided by average annual temperature for the cities, the humidity factor is highest for which city?

• (A) A
• (B) B
• (C) C
• (D) D

62. A three days exhibition titled “Melody of Colours” was organized in Jaipur from 17^th to 19^th January 2026. Water colour paintings of which of the following artists were shown in this exhibition?

• (A) Tinkal Khatri
• (B) Rajni Arya
• (C) Ganga Devi
• (D) Sushma Mahajan

63. If a certain sum of money amounts to ₹ 912 in 2 years and ₹ 996 in 3\tfrac{1}{2} years at simple interest, then the principal sum of money is

• (A) ₹ 796
• (B) ₹ 800
• (C) ₹ 812
• (D) ₹ 822

64. Which of the following schools has won the first prize in the 26^th National Youth Parliament Competition, 2024-25 for Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas?

• (A) PM Shri Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya, Kherli, Dausa, Rajasthan
• (B) PM Shri Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya, Suratgarh, Sriganganagar-II, Rajasthan
• (C) PM Shri Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya, Golaghat, Assam
• (D) PM Shri Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya, Medak, Telangana

65. The Rajasthan government has launched the Prerana Abhiyan (Campaign) 2.0 to strengthen maternal and child nutrition and health. Consider the following statements regarding this Abhiyan (Campaign) and choose the correct option :

(I) This Abhiyan (Campaign) was conducted from January 22 – February 22, 2026.

(II) Under this Abhiyan (Campaign) all eligible beneficiaries who were not receiving ICDS services, including pregnant women (in the first three months of pregnancy), lactating mothers, children aged 0 to 6 years, and adolescent girls in aspirational districts, where registered.

• (A) Only statement (I) is correct.
• (B) Only statement (II) is correct.
• (C) Both statements (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Neither statement (I) nor statement (II) is correct.

66. Bamanwas-Kankar Panchayat, which is the first village body in Rajasthan to be certified as fully organic in January 2026, is situated in which of the following districts?

• (A) Pratapgarh
• (B) Rajsamand
• (C) Jhalawar
• (D) Kotputli-Behror

67. Consider the following statements regarding the “Shri Dwarka Prasad Agarwal Samman”:

(I) Lyricist and actor Piyush Mishra was honoured with the “Shri Dwarka Prasad Agarwal Samman – 2026” at the Jaipur Literature Festival held in the January 2026.

(II) Its was instituted in 2020 from the platform of the Jaipur Literature Festival.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (A) Only (I)
• (B) Only (II)
• (C) Both (I) and (II)
• (D) Neither (I) nor (II)

68. In January 2026, the Vice-President of India launched a book titled, “Sing, Dance and Lead : Leadership Lessons from the life of Srila Prabhupada”. Who has authored this book?

• (A) Hindol Sengupta
• (B) Neha Sinha
• (C) Nitin Seth
• (D) Rana Dasgupta

69. Rajasthan women’s team defeated which of the following teams to win a bronze medal in 72^nd Senior National Volleyball Championship held at Varanasi in January 2026?

• (A) Railways
• (B) West Bengal
• (C) Haryana
• (D) Punjab

70. Which of the following Naval Vessels was flagged off for the fifth edition of Sagar Maitri (SM-5) in January 2026 from Kochi?

• (A) INS Sagardhwani
• (B) INS Sagardarshan
• (C) INS Sudarshini
• (D) INS Udaigiri

71. In the Budget 2026-27 of Rajasthan presented on 11^th February 2026, how many new chapters of Rajasthan Foundation have been announced to be opened?

• (A) 26
• (B) 18
• (C) 14
• (D) 10

72. Lin Chun-Yi who won the Yonex-Sunrise India Open Men’s Single titles (Badminton) in January 2026 belongs to which country?

• (A) Singapore
• (B) Chinese Taipei (Taiwan)
• (C) Indonesia
• (D) South Korea

73. Consider the following statements in context with ‘Transoceanic Sail Expedition–Lokayan 26’ and select the correct option:

(I) It is a 10 month expedition covering 18 foreign ports across 13 countries.

(II) The Indian Navy’s sail training ship INS Sudarshini is deployed for this mission.

• (A) Only the statement (I) is correct.
• (B) Only the statement (II) is correct.
• (C) Both the statement (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Both the statement (I) and (II) are wrong.

74. Which of the following Award–Winner pairs is not correctly matched with respect to Film category of the 31^st Annual Critics Choice Awards 2026, given by Critics Choice Association United States and Canada?

• (A) Best Actor – Timothee Chalamet
• (B) Best Actress – Jessie Buckley
• (C) Best Picture – One Battle after another
• (D) Best Director – Wade Eastwood

75. Arif Khan has secured a quota to represent India in which event for the 2026 Winter Olympics in Milano Cortina?

• (A) Cross Country Skiing
• (B) Snowboarding
• (C) Slalom Skiing
• (D) Speed Skating

76. Which of the following players was the captain of the Rajasthan Senior Women’s Cricket Team for the BCCI Senior Women’s One-Day Trophy 2026?

• (A) Suman Meena
• (B) Sumitra Jat
• (C) Jyoti Choudhary
• (D) Babita Meena

77. What is the name of the Prime Minister of Denmark, who was recently in news in matter related with Greenland?

• (A) Frederic Lielsen
• (B) Antonio Costa
• (C) Von der Leyen
• (D) Mette Frederiksen

78. Consider the following statements regarding the integration of Rajasthan and select the correct answer from the options given below:

(I) On 25^th March 1948, a Union of States named Samyukta Rajasthan was formed.

(II) The State of Udaipur was also incorporated in it and Manikyalal Verma was made Chief Minister on 1^st May, 1948.

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (II) is correct.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Both (I) and (II) are not correct.

79. Which of the following pair of forts of Rajasthan and their types, is not correctly matched?

• (A) Gagron Fort – Audak Durg
• (B) Siwana Fort – Parikh Durg
• (C) Jalore Fort – Airan Durg
• (D) Jaisalmer Fort – Dhanvan Durg

80. Arrange chronologically the following Chauhan rulers of Jalore:

(I) Chachiga Deva, (II) Samant Singh, (III) Uday Simha, (IV) Kanhar Deo

Choose the correct answer from following codes:

• (A) III, I, II, IV
• (B) II, I, III, IV
• (C) I, II, III, IV
• (D) I, III, II, IV

81. Match the following folk dance forms of Rajasthan, with their places of performance and choose the correct answer from the options given below:

/	//
(a) Bum Dance	(I) Sirohi
(b) Valar Dance	(II) Bikaner
(c) Dhol Dance	(III) Alwar–Bharatpur
(d) Agni Dance	(IV) Jalore

• (A) a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
• (B) a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
• (C) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
• (D) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I

82. Which among the following fairs are the animal fairs of Rajasthan?

(I) Chandrabhaga fair, (II) Tilwara fair, (III) Sitabari fair, (IV) Parbatsar fair

• (A) I, II and III
• (B) I, III and IV
• (C) I, II and IV
• (D) II, III and IV

83. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the Kota style of Painting?

• (A) The influence of Vallabh Sampradaya was prominent in the paintings in the era of Maharao Bhimsinghji.
• (B) The prominence of hunting scenes can be perceived in the era of Maharao Ummed Singh.
• (C) Kota style was separated from Jaipur style was developed as an independent style.
• (D) The Kota style is known for the beautiful female figures.

84. With which of the following erstwhile states of Rajasthan, ‘Band Baretha Wildlife Sanctuary’ is associated?

• (A) Alwar
• (B) Kota
• (C) Bharatpur
• (D) Tonk

85. Which of the following statements about ‘Prayag-Prashasti’ is not correct?

• (A) Prayag-Prashasti is also knwon as ‘Allahabad Pillar Inscription’.
• (B) It has been composed by Harishena.
• (C) It describes achievements of Samudragupta.
• (D) Language of this Prashasti is Prakrit.

86. Which Sufi saint is credited for establishing ‘Chisti’ Silsilah of Sufism in India?

• (A) Nasiruddin Chiragh-i-Delhi
• (B) Khwaja Muinuddin Chisti
• (C) Shaikh Salim Chisti
• (D) Farid-ud-Din Ganj-i-Shakar

87. Which of the following statement is not true regarding Saint Jasnathji?

• (A) ‘Katriyasar’ is the major religious place of this sect.
• (B) Jasnathji was belived to have been disciple of Guru Gorakhnath.
• (C) He criticized religious rituals and superstitions.
• (D) Famous Ghudla Dance is associated with this sect.

88. Consider the following statements regarding the land revenue system during British era and choose the right answer from the options given below:

(I) Mahalwari System was introduced on the basis of Elphinston’s report.

(II) Thomas Munro played a crucial role in introducing Ryotwari System.

• (A) Only (I) is correct.
• (B) Only (II) is correct.
• (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct.
• (D) Both (I) and (II) are not correct.

89. Which of the following revolutionaries was not associated with the Kakori Conspiracy case?

• (A) Ashfaqulla Khan
• (B) Ram Prasad Bismil
• (C) Roshan Singh
• (D) Gopinath Saha

90. Who wrote the book Tuhwat-ul-Muwahhidin (A Gift to Monotheist)?

• (A) Sir Syyed Ahmed Khan
• (B) Raja Rammohan Roy
• (C) Devendranath Tagore
• (D) Mirza Ghulam Ahmed

91. Which of the following pairs of officers at Sultanate period and their work is not rightly matched?

• (A) Barid – Head of Department of Information
• (B) Arz-E-Mumaliq – Head of Military Affairs
• (C) Sadr-us-Sudur – Head of Religious Endowment
• (D) Dabir-E-Khas – Head of Royal Guards

92. Which among the following physical feature is not located in Australia?

• (A) Great Dividing Range
• (B) Drakensberg Mountain
• (C) Great Sandy Desert
• (D) Great Victoria Desert

93. 31^st UN Climate Change Conference (UNFCCC-COP-31) will be held at–

• (A) Antalya
• (B) Dubai
• (C) Rio de Janeiro
• (D) Budapest

94. Which among the following is the shortest sea route to connect San Francisco and Singapore?

• (A) The Cape of Good Hope
• (B) The Mediterranean – Indian Ocean
• (C) The South Pacific
• (D) The North Pacific

95. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the merger of the Manipur after independence?

• (A) Maharaja of Manipur signed the instrument of accession, just a few days before independence.
• (B) Under the pressure of public opinion, Maharaja held the elections in Manipur in June 1949.
• (C) The Congress wanted a merger but the other political parties were against it.
• (D) A merger agreement was signed with the Government of India in September 1949.

96. Which among the following is not correctly matched?

Mine (Iron Ore) – State

• (A) Gurumahisani – Odisha
• (B) Bailadila – Madhya Pradesh
• (C) Salem – Tamil Nadu
• (D) Dharwad – Karnataka

97. Which of the following soil is found in largest are of India as per USDA soil taxonomy?

• (A) Entisols
• (B) Inceptisols
• (C) Alfisols
• (D) Vertisols

98. Which among the following city is not situated on the East-West Corridor of India?

• (A) Guwahati
• (B) Gorakhpur
• (C) Kota
• (D) Prayagraj

99. Which among the following pollutant is not included in the National Air Quality Index (India)?

• (A) PM₁₀
• (B) PM_2.5
• (C) Carbon dioxide
• (D) Carbon monoxide

100. ‘Kayals’ are the distinguishing features of which physiographic region of India?

• (A) Coromandal Coast
• (B) Malabar Coast
• (C) Kathiawar Coast
• (D) Northern Circar

Important Links