RPSC RAS Pre Solved Question Paper 2016

General Information about RPSC RAS Prelims Question Paper 2016

Exam Board	Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC)
Exam Name	Rajasthan State and Subordinate Services Combined Competitive (Preliminary) Examination, 2016
Exam Date	28-08-2016
Final Answer key issue date	16-09-2016
Exam Mode	Offline
Question paper language	Hindi & English
Question paper type	Objective
Subject	General Knowledge and General Science
Total Question	150
Maximum Marks	200
Negative Marking	1/3
Time	3 Hours

This question paper includes questions related to the following subjects :-

1. History, Art, Culture, Literature, Tradition & Heritage of Rajasthan
2. Indian History
3. Geography of World
4. Geography of India
5. Geography of Rajasthan
6. Indian Constitution, Political System & Governance
7. Political and Administrative System of Rajasthan
8. Economic Concepts and Indian Economy
9. Economy of Rajasthan
10. Science & Technology
11. Reasoning & Mental Ability
12. Current Affairs

Question 1. The ancient city which is mentioned in the Mahabharata and Mahabhashya both

• (A) Viratnagar (Bairath)
• (B) Madhyamika (Nagari)
• (C) Raidh
• (D) Karkot

Question 2. The inscription which proves the influence of Bhagwat cult in ancient Rajasthan is

• (A) Ghatiyala Incription
• (B) Besnagar Inscription of Heliodorous
• (C) Buchkala Incription
• (D) Ghosundi Inscription

Question 3. From the following temples of Rajasthan identify the temples of Rajasthan identify the temples which were built in the Gurjar-Pratihar period :

(I) Adivarah temple of Ahad

(II) Harshat Mata temple of Abhaneri

(III) Neelkanth temple of Rajorgarh

(IV) Harihar temple of Osian

• Codes :
• (A) I and IV
• (B) I, II and IV
• (C) II and IV
• (D) I, II, III and IV

Question 4. Who amongst the following scholars was not in the Court of Kumbha?

• (A) Tilla Bhatt
• (B) Muni Sunder Suri
• (C) Muni Jin Vijay Suri
• (D) Natha

Question 5. With which of the following areas of Rajasthan the Alibakshi Khayal is associated?

• (A) Karauli
• (B) Chidawa
• (C) Alwar
• (D) Chittor

Question 6. Shankariya dance of Rajasthan is related to

• (A) Kalbeliya
• (B) Bhil
• (C) Sahariya
• (D) Terahtali

Question 7. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

• Name – Text (Music)
• (A) Pundrik Vitala – Raagmala
• (B) Pandit Bhavbhatt – Sangeetraj
• (C) Kumbha – Ragakalpadrum
• (D) Ustad Chand Khan – Ragachandrika

Question 8. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

• Peasant Movement – Leader
• (A) Begun – Ram Narayan Chaudhary
• (B) Bundi – Naynu Ram Sharma
• (C) Bijoliya – Vijay Singh Pathik
• (D) Bikaner – Narottam Lal Joshi

Question 9. What is the meaning of ‘Patta Rekh’ in the history of Rajasthan?

• (A) Expected revenue
• (B) Military tax
• (C) Export-import tax
• (D) Begar

Question 10. Where was the Headquarter of Shekhawati Brigade located?

• (A) Sikar
• (B) Jhunjhunu
• (C) Khetri
• (D) Fatehpur

Question 11. Which one of the following newspapers of pre-independence Rajasthan was not the promoter of Arya Samaj ideology?

• (A) Desh Hiteshi
• (B) Janhitkarak
• (C) Paropkarak
• (D) Rajputana Gazettee

Question 12. In which of the following area of Rajasthan, “Gulabi Gangaur” is celebrated on Chaitra Shukla Panchmi?

• (A) Nathdwara
• (B) Udaipur
• (C) Bundi
• (D) Jodhpur

Question 13. Match the following :

Institution	Year of Establishment
(a) Rajasthan Seva Sangh	(I) 1921
(b) Desh Hiteshi Sabha	(II) 1927
(c) All India State People’s Conference	(III) 1877
(d) Chamber of Princes	(IV) 1919

• Codes :
• (A) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
• (B) a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
• (C) a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
• (D) a-IV, b-II, c-III , d-I

Question 14. Who among the following was the first to emphasise the need to establish separate educational institution for the rulers of the princley states of Rajasthan?

• (A) Colonel Loch
• (B) Lord Lansdowne
• (C) Captain Walter
• (D) Lord Mayo

Question 15. ‘Hansawali’ an early work of Rajasthani literature was written by

• (A) Hemchandra Asayit
• (B) Asayit
• (C) Sirdhar Vyas
• (D) Isardas

Question 16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below :

List-I (Mountain Peak)	List-II (Continent)
(a) Kosciuszko	(I) Europe
(b) Mckinley	(II) Africa
(c) Elbrus	(III) Australia
(d) Kilimanjaro	(IV) North America

• Codes :
• (A) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
• (B) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
• (C) a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
• (D) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I

Question 17. In acid rain, the rain water and snow is contaminated by which of the following pollutants?

(I) Sulphur-di-oxide

(II) Nitrogen oxide

(III) Carbon-di-oxide

(IV) Methane

• (A) I, II and IV
• (B) I, III and IV
• (C) Only II and III
• (D) Only I and II

Question 18. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a region?

(I) Global Warming

(II) Fragmentation of habitat

(III) Invasion of alien species

(IV) Promotion of Vegetarianisam

Select the correct answer using code given below :

• Codes :
• (A) I, II and III
• (B) II and III only
• (C) I and IV
• (D) II, III and IV

Question 19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below :

List-I (Industrial Regions)	List-II (Country)
(a) Lancashire Region	(I) United States of America
(b) Ruhr Region	(II) Germany
(c) Keihin Region	(III) United Kingdom
(d) Southern Appalachian Region	(IV) Japan

• Codes :
• (A) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
• (B) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
• (C) a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
• (D) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I

Question 20. Which of the following is not a correct match?

• Passes – Location is State
• (A) Shipki La – Jammu & Kashmir
• (B) Jelep La – Sikkim
• (C) Bom Di La – Arunachal Pradesh
• (D) Mana and Niti – Uttarakhand

Question 21. Assertion (a) : Green Revolution has resulted in the growth of food grain production in India.

Reason (r) : Regional disparities have aggravated due to the green revolution in India.

• Codes :
• (A) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct explanation of (a).
• (B) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct explanation of (a).
• (C) (a) is true and (r) is false.
• (D) (a) is false and (r) is true.

Question 22. Which is the correct sequence of following manganese producing States of India in terms of high to low production status in the year 2013-14?

• (A) Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
• (B) Rajasthan, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
• (C) Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
• (D) Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan

Question 23. Arrange the following cities located on North-South corridor in a sequence from North to South.

Select the correct answer using code given below :

(I) Nagpur, (II) Agra, (III) Krishnagiri, (IV) Gwalior

• Codes :
• (A) II, III, I and IV
• (B) II, IV, I and III
• (C) IV, II, III and I
• (D) I, II, IV and III

Question 24. Which of the following groups represent the correct sequence of mountain peaks of Rajasthan in descending order of their height?

• (A) Delwara, Sajjangarh, Jarga, Taragarh
• (B) Ser, Jarga, Sajjangarh, Taragarh
• (C) Jarga, Ser, Sajjangarh, Taragarh
• (D) Jarga, Delwara, Taragarh, Sajjangarh

Question 25. Which of the following lakes of Rajasthan has been included in the list of Ramsar wetland sites?

• (A) Jaisamand Lake
• (B) Anasagar Lake
• (C) Rajsamand Lake
• (D) Sambhar Lake

Question 26. When did the Rajasthan Govt. approved first forest policy?

• (A) September 2011
• (B) August 2010
• (C) March 2011
• (D) February 2010

Question 27. In which year the Government of Rajasthan made Rajasthan Biological Diversity Rules and established the Rajasthan State Biodiversity Board?

• (A) 2008
• (B) 2010
• (C) 2012
• (D) 2014

Question 28. The pair of districts benefitting from Choudhary Kumbha Ram Canal is

• (A) Hanumangarh-Jhunjhunu
• (B) Bhilwara-Tonk
• (C) Bikaner-Jodhpur
• (D) Barmer-Jaisalmer

Question 29. Identify the wrong pair :

• Mineral – Mine
• (A) Gypsum – Palana
• (B) Pink Marble – Babarmal
• (C) Garnet – Rajmahal
• (D) Uranium – Kuradiya

Question 30. Arrange the districts with maximum total population in Rajasthan in descending order as per Census 2011 :

• (A) Jaipur, Kota, Jodhpur, Bikaner
• (B) Jaipur, Jodhpur, Alwar, Nagaur
• (C) Jaipur, Udaipur, Jodhpur, Bikaner
• (D) Jaipur, Bikaner, Jodhpur, Udaipur

Question 31. Which of the following two districts of Rajasthan are having lowest percentage of scheduled tribes to total population in 2011?

• (A) Churu and Sikar
• (B) Ganganagar and Hanumangarh
• (C) Bikaner and Nagaur
• (D) Bharatpur and Dholpur

Question 32. Arrange the following districts of Rajasthan in correct order from East to West :

(I) Bundi, (II) Ajmer, (III) Udaipur, (IV) Nagaur

• (A) I, II, III, IV
• (B) II, I, III, IV
• (C) I, II, IV, III
• (D) I, III, II, IV

Question 33. The mines of Janakpura and Sarwar are known for the production of

• (A) Emerald
• (B) Garnet
• (C) Pyrite
• (D) Barytes

Question 34. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

List-I (Wildlife Conservation Reserve)	List-II (District)
(a) Jorbeed Gadhewal	(I) Jhunjhunu
(b) Gudha Vishnoi	(II) Nagaur
(c) Gogelav	(III) Jodhpur
(d) Beed	(IV) Bikaner

• Codes :
• (A) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
• (B) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
• (C) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
• (D) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV

Question 35. Consider the following statements :

(I) Aravalli restricts the eastward expansion of desert.

(II) All the rivers of Rajasthan have their origin from Aravalli.

(III) Distributional pattern of rainfall in Rajasthan is not affected by Aravalli.

(IV) Aravalli region is rich in metallic minerals.

Select the correct answer using code given below :

• Codes :
• (A) I, II and III are correct.
• (B) II, III and IV are correct.
• (C) Only III and IV are correct.
• (D) Only I and IV are correct.

Question 36. Identify the incorrect statement about Government of India Act 1919 :

• (A) The Government of India Act 1919 came into force in 1921.
• (B) This Act is also known as Morley Minto Reforms Act.
• (C) Montagu was the Secretary of State for India and Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India.
• (D) This Act separated the Central and Provincial Subjects.

Question 37. One of the following statements is incorrect. Point out :

• (A) The State of Bombay was split up into Gujarat and Maharashtra.
• (B) State of Mysore was renamed as Tamil Nadu.
• (C) Himachal Pradesh was previously in the list of Union Territories.
• (D) Goa was separated from Daman and Diu.

Question 38. When were the Fundamental Duties incorporated in the Constitution?

• (A) In 1975
• (B) In 1976
• (C) In 1978
• (D) In 1979

Question 39. The tenure of Central Information Commissioner is

• (A) 5 years or 62 years of age
• (B) 6 years or 65 years of age
• (C) 5 years or 65 years of age
• (D) 6 years or 62 years of age

Question 40. Which one of the following legislative house can be abolished?

• (A) Lok Sabha
• (B) Rajya Sabha
• (C) Vidhan Parishad
• (D) Vidhan Sabha

Question 41. In which of the following group of the States, PESA [Panchayats (Extension of Scheduled Areas) Act], 1996 is not enforceable?

• (A) Assam-Meghalaya-Tamil Nadu
• (B) Rajasthan-Telangana-Maharashtra
• (C) Himachal Pradesh-Gujarat-Chhattisgarh
• (D) Andhra Pradesh-Jharkhand-Odisha

Question 42. Among the following which group of States/Union Territories have only one seat in the Lok Sabha?

• (A) Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Lakshadweep
• (B) Goa, Meghalaya, Nagaland
• (C) Chandigarh, Sikkim, Mizoram
• (D) Manipur, Dadar and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry

Question 43. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List-I	List-II
(a) Abolition of titles	(I) Article 29
(b) Freedom of manage religious affairs	(II) Article 21 A
(c) Protection of language of minorities	(III) Article 18
(d) Right to education	(IV) Article 26

• Codes :
• (A) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
• (B) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
• (C) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
• (D) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I

Question 44. One amongst the following was not a salient feature of the Government of India Act, 1935 :

• (A) It marked the beginning of the Provincial Autonomy.
• (B) The Act provided for an All India Federation.
• (C) It abolished Diarchy at the Provincial Level and introduced it at the Centre.
• (D) Residuary subjects were allocated to Provincial Legislatures.

Question 45. The procedure of Impeachment of the President of India is

• (A) Judicial Procedure
• (B) Quasi-Judicial Procedure
• (C) Legislative Procedure
• (D) Executive Procedure

Question 46. How many times President’s rule has been imposed in the State of Rajasthan till 30^th June, 2016?

• (A) 5 times
• (B) 3 times
• (C) 6 times
• (D) 4 times

Question 47. Delimitation Commission of 1952 had determined th strength of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly as

• (A) 200
• (B) 160
• (C) 188
• (D) Three MLAs for each district.

Question 48. Before the appointment of Shri Kalyan Singh as the Governor of Rajasthan who among the following was the Acting Governor of the State?

• (A) O.P. Kohli
• (B) Ram Naresh Yadav
• (C) Ram Naik
• (D) Margaret Alva

Question 49. Among the following, whose tenure has been the longest as the Chairman of Rajasthan Public Service Commission?

• (A) Mohammad Yaqub
• (B) Yatindra Singh
• (C) D.S. Tewari
• (D) C.R. Choudhary

Question 50. How many elected and Ex-Officio members are there in District Planning Committee?

• (A) 20 and 5
• (B) 20 and 3
• (C) 20 and 2
• (D) 20 and 10

Question 51. The powers of District Collector as a District Magistrate are :

(I) To maintain law and order

(II) Control over police

(III) To check passports of foreigners

(IV) To control land revenue

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

• Codes :
• (A) I, II, III
• (B) I, III, IV
• (C) II, III, IV
• (D) I, II, IV

Question 52. Choose the correct answer :

Governor of Rajasthan is Chancellor of

• (A) All State Universities.
• (B) All State Universities and Central Universities in the State.
• (C) All State Universities as well as Private Universities in the State.
• (D) All State Universities, the Central Universities in the State and all Private Universities in the State.

Question 53. When was Rajasthan Information Commission constituted?

• (A) April 18, 2008
• (B) April 18, 2006
• (C) April 18, 2007
• (D) April 18, 2005

Question 54. Choose the correct answer :

The appointment of Lok Ayukta at the state level was first recommended by

• (A) Rajasthan State Administrative Reforms Committee
• (B) Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-70)
• (C) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
• (D) Santhanam Committee

Question 55. Choose the correct alternative :

The Chairman of a Joint Public Service Commission for two or more States is appointed by

• (A) The Governor of the largest State
• (B) The President of India
• (C) A committee of Governors of all the States concerned
• (D) The President of India on the recommendation of the Governors concerned

Question 56. In the history of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly till 30^th June, 2016, how many times the confidence motion has been moved and discussed?

• (A) Once
• (B) Twice
• (C) Thrice
• (D) Four times

Question 57. Consider the following statements regarding Bhamasha Yojana :

(I) With the consent of the family, any woman of the family, who has attained the age of 21 years, may be declared as the head of the family.

(II) First verification of Bhamashah enrollment is done by the Sarpanch of the concerned Gram Panchayat.

• (A) Only I is correct
• (B) Only II is correct
• (C) Both I and II are correct.
• (D) Both I and II are incorrect.

Question 58. Which one of the following statements is true about Anuprati Yojana?

• (A) It is a scheme to give financial help to Scheduled Caste girl for marriage.
• (B) It is a scheme to give coaching for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe students.
• (C) It is a scheme to give financial help to orphan children of Scheduled Caste.
• (D) It is a scheme to give financial assistance to school going children of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe.

Question 59. Select the correct answer :

State Election Commission of Rajasthan

• (A) a statutory authority
• (B) an executive authority
• (C) a constitutional authority
• (D) a unit of Election Commission of India

Question 60. How many times election have been held for Panchayati Raj Institutions in Rajasthan till 2015?

• (A) 5 times
• (B) 8 times
• (C) 9 times
• (D) 10 times

Question 61. Inflation rate based on consumer price index increases if

• (A) Bank rate is decreased
• (B) Reverse repo rate is decreased
• (C) Statutory Liquidity ratio is increased
• (D) Repo rate is increased

Question 62. As per the Human Development Report 2015, consider the following statements :

(I) India ranks 130 out of 188 countries.

(II) HDI is based on the indices for life expectance, education and PCI.

(III) In comparison to other nations in the BRICS, India has the lowest rank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (A) I and II only
• (B) II and III only
• (C) II only
• (D) I, II and III

Question 63. Unemployment and poverty estimates in India are based on

• (A) NSSO household consumption expenditure survey
• (B) CSO household consumption expenditure survey
• (C) Planning Commission’s household consumption expenditure survey
• (D) NSSO family income survey

Question 64. Consider the following important sources of tax revenue for the Central Government in India :

(I) Union Excise Duty, (II) Corporation Tax, (III) Income Tax, (IV) Service Tax

Which one of the following is the correct descending order in terms of Gross Tax Revenue?

• (A) I, II, IV, III
• (B) II, IV, I, III
• (C) II, III, I, IV
• (D) IV, I, II, III

Question 65. Since 1997-98, which statement is correct regarding Minimum Support Price (MSP)?

• (A) MSP = C2 costs
• (B) MSP > C2 costs
• (C) MSP < C2 costs
• (D) MSP is independent to C2 cost.

Question 66. Which of the following statements i correct about the balance of trade of India?

• (A) India’s trade balance remained negative for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16.
• (B) India’s trade balance remained positive for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16
• (C) India’s trade balance remained negative for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16 except two years 1972-73 and 1976-77, when it was positive.
• (D) India’s trade balance remained positive for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16 except two year 1972-73 and 1976-77, when it was negative.

Question 67. Choose the correct answer in the context of PAHAL scheme :

• (A) It is first variety of JAM.
• (B) It transfers LPG subsidy via DBT.
• (C) It directly transfers LPG subsidy into customer’s bank accounts.
• (D) All these are true.

Question 68. In which year the rate of growth of India’s per capita income at constant prices was the highest during the period 1951-52 to 2015-16?

• (A) 2015-16
• (B) 2010-11
• (C) 2007-08
• (D) 2014-15

Question 69. The base year for Rajasthan’s whole sale Price Index is :

• (A) 1986-87
• (B) 1999-2000
• (C) 2004-05
• (D) 2011-12

Question 70. The growth targets in the 12^th Five Year Plan of Rajasthan for Agriculture, Industry and Service sectors are respectively

• (A) 3.5%, 8.0% and 9.4%
• (B) 4.0%, 8.0% and 9.0%
• (C) 4.0%, 8.5% and 9.0%
• (D) 3.5%, 8.5% and 9.5%

Question 71. Which of the following statements are correct about sex ratio (number of females per 1000 males) in Rajasthan according to Census 2011?

(I) Sex ratio in Rajasthan in 2011 was less than National average.

(II) Sex ratio in all Districts of Rajasthan in 2011 was less than 1000.

(III) Sex ratio in rural areas of all Districts of Rajasthan in 2011 was less than 1000, except Pali District.

(IV) Sex ration in urban areas of All districts of Rajasthan in 2011 was less than 1000, except Dhaulpur District.

Select the correct answer using codes given below :

• (A) Only I is correct.
• (B) I and II are correct.
• (C) I, II and III are correct.
• (D) I, II, III and IV are correct.

Question 72. Consider the following statements about Jalipa-Kapurdi thermal power project of Rajasthan?

(I) This power project is lignite based.

(II) It has been installed by private developer.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

• (A) Both I and II are correct.
• (B) Both I and II are not correct.
• (C) Only statement I is correct.
• (D) Only statement II is correct.

Question 73. Which of the following external agency is providing financial assistance for Rajasthan Renewable Energy Transmission Investment Program?

• (A) World Bank
• (B) Japan International Co-operation Agency (JICA)
• (C) Asian Development Bank
• (D) KFW Germany

Question 74. ‘NAYA SAVERA’ is

• (A) a programme to de-addict all the Doda Post users
• (B) a programme to de-addict all the tobacco users
• (C) a programme to de-addict all the wine users
• (D) All of these

Question 75. Mukhya Mantri Nishulk Dava Yojana in Rajasthan was launched on

• (A) `2^{th}` September, 2011
• (B) `2^{th}` September, 2010
• (C) `2^{th}` October, 2011
• (D) `2^{th}` October, 2010

Question 76. The main features of Bhamashah Yojana are

(I) Each family is issued a Bhamashah card in the name of the female head of the family.

(II) Bhamashah card is linked to the bank account of the lady.

(III) Multiple cash benefits will be transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries.

(IV) All non-cash benefits will also be transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries.

Select correct answer using codes given below :

• (A) Only I is correct.
• (B) I and II are correct.
• (C) I, II and III are correct.
• (D) I, II, III and IV are correct.

Question 77. Name the scheme being implemented in Rajasthan under which cash incentive is given to SC/ST/SBC/BPL of OBC & GEN candidate selected in the All India Civil Services Examination, the State Civil Services Examination and a candidate getting admission in IITs, IIMs and National Level Medical Colleges.

• (A) Anuprati Yojana
• (B) Scholarship Scheme
• (C) Merit-cum-Means Scheme
• (D) Upper Merit Scholarship

Question 78. Nodal Agency for generation of energy from non-conventional energy sources in Rajasthan is

• (A) Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Ltd.
• (B) State Ministry of New Renewable Energy
• (C) Centre for New and Renewable Energy Sources
• (D) None of these

Question 79. How many District Industries Centres are working in Rajasthan?

• (A) 36
• (B) 33
• (C) 31
• (D) 29

Question 80. One of the following is not the objective of Chief Minister’s Shubh Laxmi Yojana in Rajasthan :

• (A) To promote the birth of girl child
• (B) To prevent child marriage
• (C) To encourage registration of girl child birth
• (D) To help pregnant girls

Question 81. The chemical formula of baking soda is

• (A) `CaCO_{3}`
• (B) `Ca(OH)_{2}`
• (C) `Na_{2}CO_{3}`
• (D) `NaHCO_{3}`

Question 82. Photovoltaic cell is related to

• (A) Solar Energy
• (B) Nuclear Energy
• (C) Wind Energy
• (D) Geo Thermal Energy

Question 83. The latest android mobile operating system-6.0 is named as

• (A) Kitkat
• (B) Marshmallow
• (C) Lollipop
• (D) Jelly Bean

Question 84. Which district has become the first one in India to get connected to the High Speed Rural Broadband Network?

• (A) Bengaluru District of Karnataka
• (B) Vidisha District of Madhya Pradesh
• (C) Idukki District of Kerala
• (D) Pune District of Maharashtra

Question 85. The Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed a drug named, ‘Lukoskin’. It is being used in the treatment of________.

• (A) Leukemia
• (B) Leucoderma
• (C) Lung Cancer
• (D) Leukorrhea

Question 86. Match the following pairs :

Launch Vehicle	Satellite
(a) Satellite Launch Vehicle-3 (SLV-3)	(I) Chandrayaan-1
(b) Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle (ASLV)	(II) Rohini
(c) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)	(III) SROSS-C
(d) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV)	(IV) EDUSAT

Which of the following codes are correctly mateched?

• Codes :
• (A) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
• (B) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
• (C) a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
• (D) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I

Question 87. Which among the following is a nuclear powered submarine of Indian Navy?

• (A) INS Shishumar
• (B) INS Shalki
• (C) INS Chakra
• (D) INS Sindhuvir

Question 88. Which of the following aircraft is an air-to-air refueller of the India. Air Force?

• (A) C-17 Globemaster III
• (B) Ilyushin II-76
• (C) Ilyushin II-78
• (D) C-130 J Super Hercules

Question 89. Which of the following statements are correct?

(I) Sugarcane juice is fermented to form vinegar.

(II) Vinegar has acetic acid.

(III) Benzoic acid is the acid present in Vinegar.

(IV) Vinegar is used as a preservative.

• (A) I, III, IV
• (B) I, II, IV
• (C) I, II, III
• (D) II, III, IV

Question 90. Arrange the following products/examples of nanotechnology in ascending order of the four generation of nanotechnology [I → IV] and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(I) Aerosol, (II) 3D networking, (III) Molecular manufacturing, (IV) Targeted drugs

• Codes :
• (A) I, II, III, IV
• (B) IV, I, II, III
• (C) I, IV, II, III
• (D) IV, I, III, II

Question 91. Which among the following is the richest source of alpha-linolenic acid (18-carbon omega-3 fatty acid)?

• (A) Mung bean
• (B) Moth bean
• (C) Flaxseed
• (D) Oats

Question 92. Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones using the codes given below :

(I) The flavr-savr tamato was the first genetically engineered crop-product to be commercialised.

(II) Ripe fruits of flavr-savr remain firm for longer duration and can be transported to market after vine-ripening.

(III) Ripe fruits of flavr-savr have colour but not the full array of vine ripened-tomato flavours.

• Codes :
• (A) I and II
• (B) II and III
• (C) I and III
• (D) I, II and III

Question 93. Calcium carbide is used for artificial ripening of green fruits because it produces

• (A) Acetylene
• (B) Methylene
• (C) Florigen
• (D) Auxin

Question 94. The relative contributions of carbon dioxide (CO₂), nitrous oxide (N₂O), chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and methane (CH₄) towards global warming are

• (A) `CO_{2}>CFC_{s}>CH_{4}>N_{2}O`
• (B) `CO_{2}>CH_{4}>CFC_{s}>N_{2}O`
• (C) `CO_{2}>CH_{4}>N_{2}O>CFC_{s}`
• (D) `CO_{2}>N_{2}O>CH_{4}>CFC_{s}`

Question 95. Which of the facts about Dolly (sheep), the first mammal cloned form an adult somatic cell is not correct?

• (A) Dolly was born in the year 1998.
• (B) Dolly died in the year 2003.
• (C) Dolly was born at Scotland.
• (D) Dolly died due to lung disease.

Question 96. First National Park established in India is

• (A) Kaziranga National Park
• (B) Jim Corbett National Park
• (C) Gir National Park
• (D) Kanha National Park

Question 97. The bio-fertilizer used as a supplementary food for the cattle, especially for milking bovines is

• (A) Azotobacter
• (B) Azospirillum
• (C) Rhizobium
• (D) Azolla

Question 98. The Central Institute of Arid Horticulture is situated at

• (A) Bikaner
• (B) Sri Ganganagar
• (C) Jodhpur
• (D) Udaipur

Question 99. Against which of the following diseases has Government of India decided to give Bivalent ORV in Place of Trivalent?

• (A) Typhoid
• (B) Diptheria
• (C) Polio
• (D) Malaria

Question 100. For popularisation of Science & Technology in the State, the Government has established Science Centres and Science Parks in Rajasthan. Identify the correct places where Science Parks have been established so far :

• (A) Jaipur, Jodhpur, Kota
• (B) Jaipur, Bikaner, Jhalarapatan (Jhalawar)
• (C) Jaipur, Nawalgarh, Jhalarapatan (Jhalawar)
• (D) Jaipur, Nawalgarh, Kota

Question 101. In this question, a statement is followed by two assumptions :

Statement : Nothing is beyond the reach of a hard working person.

Assumptions :

(I) A hard working person can achieve everything.

(II) Those who do not work hard cannot achieve anything.

• (A) Only I is implied in the statement.
• (B) Only II is implied in the statement.
• (C) Both I and II are implied in the statement.
• (D) Neither I nor II is implied in the statement.

Question 102. The statement below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument. Give answer.

Statement : Should use of mobile phone be banned while driving?

Arguments :

(I) Yes, most of the time it causes accident.

(II) No, this can create a major problem for mobile users in emergencey.

• (A) Only argument I is strong.
• (B) Only argument II is strong.
• (C) Both I and II are strong.
• (D) Neither I nor II is Strong.

Question 103. Statements : (a) All fruits are trees.

(b) No flower is tree.

Conclusion :

(I) No flower is fruit.

(II) Some trees are fruits.

• (A) Only conclusion I follows.
• (B) Only conclusion II follows.
• (C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
• (D) Both conclusion I and II follow.

Question 104. Answer the following :

Statement : If he is intelligent, he will pass the NET examination.

Assumption :

(I) To pass, the NET examination he must be intelligent.

(II) He will pass the NET examination.

• (A) Neither I nor II is implicit.
• (B) Only Assumption II is implicit.
• (C) Either I or II is implicit.
• (D) Both I and II are implicit.

Question 105. In the given figure, total number of triangles are

• (A) 21
• (B) 23
• (C) 25
• (D) 27

Question 106. Next term of the sequence 1039, 2247, 3455, 4663, ………is

• (A) 5772
• (B) 5871
• (C) 5782
• (D) 5881

Question 107. The next term in the given sequence 7Y, 26V, 63R, 124M, ………, is

• (A) 216G
• (B) 216H
• (C) 215G
• (D) 215H

Question 108. Pick out the odd one

• (A) Cat
• (B) Cow
• (C) Goat
• (D) Pig

Question 109. If “GYPSUM” is coded as “MGSPYU”, “FATHER” is coded as “RFHTAE”, the “BEYOND” will be coded as

• (A) DBYOEN
• (B) NDEYBO
• (C) DBOEYN
• (D) DBOYEN

Question 110. A, B, C, D, E and F are 6 members of a family. Numbar of males is equal to number of females. Family has one pair of husband-wife. A and E are sons of F, and A is elder. D is mother of two children (one is boy and other is girl). B is son of A. Then the niece of E is

• (A) C
• (B) D
• (C) F
• (D) A

Question 111. In the question a key figure marked (X) is given, followed by four other alternative figures marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). The figure which fits exactly into figure (X) to form a complete square, is

• (A) D
• (B) B
• (C) C
• (D) A

Question 112. In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 5 : 3. In order to make this ratio 1 : 2, the quantity of water to be added to the mixture is

• (A) 17.5 litres
• (B) 22.5 litres
• (C) 58.5 litres
• (D) 52.5 litres

Question 113. The missing number is the given table is

• (A) 5
• (B) 7
• (C) 9
• (D) 14

Question 114. Which is the digit at unit place of the product (5⁴¹ × 7⁶⁹ × 3⁵⁷)?

• (A) 7
• (B) 5
• (C) 3
• (D) 1

Question 115. 200 bulbs are used 4 hours per day and expenditure of 6 days is ₹ 40. Then how many bulbs should be used 3 hours per day so that expenditure of 15 days is ₹ 48 ?

• (A) 72
• (B) 800
• (C) 128
• (D) 90

Question 116. Two students X and Y appeared at an examination. X secured 9 marks more than marks of Y and marks of X was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by X and Y are respectively

• (A) 39, 30
• (B) 41, 32
• (C) 42, 33
• (D) 43, 34

Question 117. The difference of compound interest (annually) and simple interest on an amount of ₹ 15,000 for 2 years on the same rate of interest is ₹ 96. The rate of interest per annum is

• (A) 8%
• (B) 10%
• (C) 12%
• (D) 7%

Question 118. A father distributes ₹ 16,400 into two fixed deposits for his two sons of age 17 and 18 years respectively, such that at their age of 20 years, both get the same amount. If rate of compound interest is 5% per annum (compounded annually), then how much amount the father deposits for his younger son?

• (A) ₹ 8,000
• (B) ₹ 8,200
• (C) ₹ 8,400
• (D) ₹ 10,000

Refer the following table and pie-graphs for Question Nos. 119 and 120.

Automobile Exports from India (in thousands)

Type	2010-11	2011-12	2012-13	2013-14
Two wheelers	1250	1317	1423	1320
Three wheelers	433	467	561	516
Cars	716	813	795	721
LMVs	823	756	826	803
LCVs	1012	983	1058	968
HCVs	913	1003	1101	1063

Share of various regions in two wheeler exports from India

Answer the following Questions (119 and 120)

Question 119. What is the percentage change in export of automobiles excluding HCVs in 2013-14 as compared to 2010-11?

• (A) 2.22% increase
• (B) 2.22% decrease
• (C) 3.22% increase
• (D) 3.22% decrease

Question 120. How many more two wheelers (in nearest thousand) were exported to EU in 2013-14 as compared to 2010-11?

• (A) 129
• (B) 131
• (C) 134
• (D) 176

Question 121. How many Gold Medals won by India in the 12^th South Asian Games held in February 2016?

• (A) 200
• (B) 188
• (C) 156
• (D) 96

Question 122. Who among the following led the movement for withdrawing United Kingdom from the European Union?

• (A) Boris Johnson
• (B) Mark Carney
• (C) George Osborne
• (D) Jean-Clande Junker

Question 123. Who captained the Mumbai Cricket team, which won the Ranji Trophy Tournament 2015-16?

• (A) Surya Kumar Yadav
• (B) Shreyas Iyer
• (C) Rohit Sharma
• (D) Aditya Tare

Question 124. Which Indian State has been declared as the first ‘Digital State’ of India?

• (A) Karnataka
• (B) Kerala
• (C) Maharashtra
• (D) Goa

Question 125. How much percentage of the total land mass area of India is in Rajasthan?

• (A) 10.4%
• (B) 7.9%
• (C) 13.3%
• (D) 11.4%

Question 126. How much of Thar Desert in India falls in Rajasthan?

• (A) 40%
• (B) 60%
• (C) 80%
• (D) 90%

Question 127. Which country recently conferred its highest civilian honour ‘Amir Amanullah Khan Award’ to Prime Minister Narendra Modi?

• (A) Saudi Arabia
• (B) Uzbekistan
• (C) Iran
• (D) Afghanistan

Question 128. Identify the place, where the first “Annupurna Bhandar” was inaugurated by the Chief Minister of Rajasthan on 31^st October, 2015

• (A) Chomu
• (B) Bhambori
• (C) Phagi
• (D) Kotputali

Question 129. Rajasthan is the first state to implement which one of the following Act to redress public grievances?

• (A) Transparency in Public Procurement Act
• (B) Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act
• (C) Good Governance Act
• (D) Right to Hearing Act

Question 130. Government of Rajasthan has set-up Jeevan Dhara Bank in collaboration with Norwegian Government to provide

• (A) Blood for Cancer patients
• (B) Water for Desert areas
• (C) Insurance to Old persons
• (D) Mother’s Milk to Infants

Question 131. What is the official ‘motto’ of Rio 2016 Paralympic Games?

• (A) A new world
• (B) Come and play
• (C) Equality to play
• (D) Come walk together

Question 132. The sentence incorporated in the ‘Logo’ of Rajasthan tourism is

• (A) Rangilo Rajasthan
• (B) Jane Kya Dikh Jaye
• (C) Rajasthan Ro Dil Dekho
• (D) Darshniya Rajasthan

Question 133. How many sports will be played during Rio Paralympic Games, 2016?

• (A) 20
• (B) 42
• (C) 23
• (D) 27

Question 134. Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana?

(I) The scheme provides free LPG connection to the women belonging to the Below Poverty Line (BPL) households.

(II) ₹ 8,000 crore has been earmarked under the scheme.

(III) The scheme provides a financial support of ₹ 2,800 for each LPG connection to the BPL households.

(IV) The scheme will benefit 5 crore BPL families across the nation.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (A) Only I and II
• (B) Only II and III
• (C) Only I, III, and IV
• (D) Only I, II and IV

Question 135. Who is the first Dronacharya awardee of Rajasthan State?

• (A) Karan Singh
• (B) Ripudaman Singh
• (C) Gopal Saini
• (D) Paramjeet Singh

Question 136. Prestigious Asian cup 2015 Table Tennis championships was hosted at

• (A) Sawai Mansingh Indoor Stadium, Jaipur
• (B) National Sports Club of India, Mumbai
• (C) Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, New Delhi
• (D) Netaji Subhas Indoor Stadium, Kolkata

Question 137. Newly elected Chairman of Rajasthan Olympic Association is

• (A) Shivcharan Mali
• (B) Dhanraj Choudhary
• (C) Gopal Saini
• (D) Ramavtar Jakhar

Question 138. How many events took place in Rio Olympic Games, 2016?

• (A) 396
• (B) 326
• (C) 306
• (D) 296

Question 139. Which is the first solar powered aircraft to circumnavigate the earth?

• (A) Solar Impulse-1
• (B) Solar Impulse-3
• (C) Solar Impulse-2
• (D) Solar Impulse-4

Question 140. In 35^th National Games, 2015 Rajasthan won

• (A) 10 Medals
• (B) 1 Gold Medal only
• (C) 3 Silver Medals
• (D) 18 Medals

Question 141. In which of the following texts the list of the sixteen great states (Sodasa Mahajanapadas) of ancient India occur?

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(I) Arthashastra, (II) Anguttara Nikaya, (III) Digha Nikaya, (IV) Bhagavati Sutra

• Codes :
• (A) I and II
• (B) II and IV
• (C) I, II and III
• (D) II, III and IV

Question 142. The legend of Satyakam Jabal, which challenges the stigma of being an unmarried mother, is mentioned in

• (A) Chhandogya Upanishad
• (B) Jabal Upanishad
• (C) Kathopnishad
• (D) Prashnopnishad

Question 143. Which of the following Sanskrit works has taken up their theme from the Mahabharata?

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(I) Naishdhiyacharita, (II) Kiratarjuniyam, (III) Sisupalavadha, (IV) Dasakumaracharita

• Codes :
• (A) I and III
• (B) II and III
• (C) I, II and III
• (D) II, III and IV

Question 144. Which one of the following Sun Temples is located in Patan, Gujarat?

• (A) Konark
• (B) Modhera
• (C) Martand
• (D) Dakshinark

Question 145. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

• (A) Raziya Sultan – Delhi
• (B) Bahadur Shah – Gujarat
• (C) Baz Bahadur – Malwa
• (D) Chand Bibi – Awadh

Question 146. Who among the following laid the foundation of the Chola Empire in the IX^th century A.D.?

• (A) Vijayalaya
• (B) Krishna I
• (C) Parantak
• (D) Rajraja Chola

Question 147. The Persian translation of Mahabharata, which was done in 16^th century is called

• (A) Hamzanama
• (B) Alamgirnama
• (C) Badshahnama
• (D) Razmanama

Question 148. Who among the following does not belong to the Chishti order?

• (A) Sheikh Moinuddin
• (B) Khwaja Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Kaki
• (C) Sheikh Nizamuddin Aulia
• (D) Sheikh Abdul Jilani

Question 149. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

• (A) Ring Fence Policy – Warren Hastings
• (B) Suppression of Thuggee – William Bentinck
• (C) Vernacular Press Act – Curzon
• (D) Illbert Bill – Ripon

Question 150. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (a) : Socio-religious movements of the 19^th century resulted in the modernization of India.

Reason (r) : Rationalism, scientific temper and other such ideas which are the basis of modernization were at the core of the socio-religious movements.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

• Codes :
• (A) (a) is true but (r) is false.
• (B) (r) is true but (a) is false.
• (C) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct explanation of (a).
• (D) Both (a) and (b) are true and (r) is the correct explanation of (a).

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